UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — General Elections and bye-elections 2026: Seizures surpass Rs 510 crores in WB

Question 1

Under which one of the following is the Selection Committee for appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners statutorily constituted?

Accepted Answer

The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023

Answer

Article 324(2) of the Constitution

Answer

The Representation of the People Act, 1951

Answer

The Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991

Question 2

Match List I with List II with respect to milestones in the institutional evolution of the Election Commission of India, and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Accepted Answer

A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Answer

A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Answer

A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

Answer

A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Question 3

In the context of Article 324 of the Constitution, the expression 'plenary powers' of the Election Commission of India, as interpreted by the Supreme Court, most precisely refers to which one of the following?

Accepted Answer

Inherent residuary power to issue directions in areas where enacted law is silent, so as to ensure free and fair elections

Answer

Power to legislate substantive election laws independent of, and overriding, statutes enacted by Parliament

Answer

Power to adjudicate election petitions and disqualify returned candidates with finality

Answer

Power to suspend the operation of fundamental rights of citizens during the period of elections

Question 4

Match List I (Stage in the conduct of a general election to the House of the People, in chronological order) with List II (Governing statutory provision) and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Accepted Answer

A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Answer

A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

Answer

A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

Answer

A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Question 5

Under which one of the following provisions is a person disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament on the ground of conviction for certain specified offences such as those under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 or the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?

Accepted Answer

Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951

Answer

Section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950

Answer

Section 8A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951

Answer

Section 7 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951

Question 6

Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which one of the following is the forum of first instance for the trial of an election petition calling in question an election to the House of the People or to a State Legislative Assembly?

Accepted Answer

The High Court of the State in which the election was held

Answer

The Supreme Court of India

Answer

The Election Commission of India sitting as a tribunal

Answer

An Election Tribunal constituted by the President under Section 8A

Question 7

Consider the following milestones in the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) in India. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Accepted Answer

A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer

A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

Answer

A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Answer

A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

Question 8

The Election Commission of India's power to enforce the Model Code of Conduct on political parties and candidates is constitutionally anchored, in the absence of a specific statutory backing, in which one of the following provisions?

Accepted Answer

Article 324 of the Constitution

Answer

Article 329 of the Constitution

Answer

Section 123 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951

Answer

Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951

Question 9

The Model Code of Conduct issued by the Election Commission of India is organised into eight Parts. Match List I (Part of the MCC) with List II (Illustrative provision contained therein) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Accepted Answer

A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Answer

A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

Answer

A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

Answer

A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

Question 10

Which of the following is described by the Election Commission of India as a single-point digital platform that subsumes over 40 of its existing IT applications, including the Election Seizure Management System (ESMS)?

Accepted Answer

ECINET

Answer

cVIGIL

Answer

SUVIDHA Portal

Answer

ENCORE

Question 11

The Election Seizure Management System (ESMS), used to digitise field seizures of cash, liquor, drugs and freebies during elections, is an in-house IT platform developed and operationalised by which one of the following?

Accepted Answer

Election Commission of India

Answer

Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)

Answer

Directorate of Enforcement (ED) under the Ministry of Finance

Answer

Ministry of Home Affairs through the Bureau of Police Research and Development

Question 12

In the context of Indian election management, the term 'Election Seizure Management System (ESMS)' most precisely refers to:

Accepted Answer

An IT-based portal and mobile application that enables real-time, inter-agency reporting and digitisation of field seizures of cash, liquor, drugs, precious metals and freebies during elections

Answer

A statutory tribunal under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, that adjudicates disputes over confiscated election materials

Answer

A constitutional mechanism under Article 324 that empowers the ECI to attach the bank accounts of candidates exceeding expenditure limits

Answer

A scheme of the Ministry of Finance for auctioning items seized by enforcement agencies during the Model Code of Conduct period

Question 13

Under which Article of the Constitution of India does the Election Commission derive the power of superintendence, direction and control of the General Elections to the Legislative Assemblies of Assam, Kerala, Puducherry, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal for which the schedule was announced on 15 March 2026?

Accepted Answer

Article 324

Answer

Article 280

Answer

Article 329

Answer

Article 338

Question 14

With reference to the General Elections to State/UT Legislative Assemblies for which the Election Commission of India announced the schedule on 15 March 2026, which of the following are NOT among the poll-going States/Union Territories?

Accepted Answer

2 and 4

Answer

1 and 3

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

3 only

Question 15

The Model Code of Conduct for the 2026 General Elections to the Legislative Assemblies of Assam, Kerala, Puducherry, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal came into force with effect from which date?

Accepted Answer

15 March 2026

Answer

26 February 2026

Answer

15 March 2025

Answer

9 April 2026

Question 16

What is the maximum expenditure ceiling for a candidate contesting a Lok Sabha election from a larger State (e.g., West Bengal, Tamil Nadu) under the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, as currently in force?

Accepted Answer

Rs 95 lakh

Answer

Rs 54 lakh

Answer

Rs 70 lakh

Answer

Rs 75 lakh

Question 17

With reference to the revision of candidate expenditure ceilings notified by the Government on 6 January 2022, consider the following statements:
1. The ceiling for a Lok Sabha candidate in a larger State was raised from Rs 70 lakh to Rs 95 lakh.
2. The ceiling for a Legislative Assembly candidate in a larger State was raised from Rs 28 lakh to Rs 40 lakh.
3. Prior to the 2022 revision, the last major revision of these ceilings had taken place in 2014, with an interim ten per cent enhancement in 2020.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1 and 2 only

Answer

2 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only

Question 18

For the 2026 General Assembly Elections in Assam, Kerala, Puducherry, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal, how many Expenditure Observers were deployed by the Election Commission of India, drawn from Central Civil Services such as IRS, IA&AS, IRAS, IDAS, IP&TAFS and ICAS?

Accepted Answer

376

Answer

244

Answer

844

Answer

7,470

Question 19

Under the Electoral Bonds Scheme, 2018 (since struck down by the Supreme Court), which one of the following was designated as the sole authorised institution to issue and encash electoral bonds?

Accepted Answer

State Bank of India

Answer

Reserve Bank of India

Answer

National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

Answer

Small Industries Development Bank of India

Question 20

With reference to the regime of political funding before and after the Finance Act, 2017, consider the following statements:
1. Prior to the Finance Act, 2017, a company could contribute to political parties only up to 7.5% of its average net profits of the preceding three financial years; this ceiling was removed by the Finance Act, 2017.
2. Unlike donations through Electoral Trusts, donations through electoral bonds required political parties to disclose the identity of donors to the Election Commission of India.
3. The Supreme Court's February 2024 verdict on electoral bonds struck down the amendments made by the Finance Act, 2017 to the Companies Act, 2013, the Income Tax Act, 1961 and the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Accepted Answer

1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 2 only

Answer

2 and 3 only

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Question 21

Match List I (Event in the history of the Electoral Bonds Scheme) with List II (Year/Month) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Accepted Answer

A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Answer

A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Answer

A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Answer

A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Question 22

Which one of the following provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 is the principal statutory provision prescribing the time-limit within which bye-elections must be held to fill casual vacancies in Parliament and State Legislatures?

Accepted Answer

Section 151A

Answer

Section 149

Answer

Section 150

Answer

Section 151

Question 23

Under Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, within how many months from the date of occurrence of a casual vacancy in Parliament or a State Legislature must a bye-election ordinarily be held?

Accepted Answer

Six months

Answer

Three months

Answer

Nine months

Answer

Twelve months

Question 24

With reference to bye-elections under Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, as compared with the general scheme of the Act, consider the following statements:
1. The Election Commission must invariably hold a bye-election within six months of the occurrence of every casual vacancy, with no exceptions whatsoever.
2. No bye-election is required to be held if the remainder of the term of a member in relation to the vacancy is less than one year.
3. Section 151A was not part of the original Representation of the People Act, 1951 but was inserted by an amendment in 1996.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

2 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 3 only

Answer

1, 2 and 3

UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — General Elections and bye-elections 2026: Seizures surpass Rs 510 crores in WB

Q1. Under which one of the following is the Selection Committee for appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners statutorily constituted?

Q2. Match List I with List II with respect to milestones in the institutional evolution of the Election Commission of India, and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Q3. In the context of Article 324 of the Constitution, the expression 'plenary powers' of the Election Commission of India, as interpreted by the Supreme Court, most precisely refers to which one of the following?

Q4. Match List I (Stage in the conduct of a general election to the House of the People, in chronological order) with List II (Governing statutory provision) and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q6. Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which one of the following is the forum of first instance for the trial of an election petition calling in question an election to the House of the People or to a State Legislative Assembly?

Q7. Consider the following milestones in the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) in India. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Q8. The Election Commission of India's power to enforce the Model Code of Conduct on political parties and candidates is constitutionally anchored, in the absence of a specific statutory backing, in which one of the following provisions?

Q9. The Model Code of Conduct issued by the Election Commission of India is organised into eight Parts. Match List I (Part of the MCC) with List II (Illustrative provision contained therein) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Q10. Which of the following is described by the Election Commission of India as a single-point digital platform that subsumes over 40 of its existing IT applications, including the Election Seizure Management System (ESMS)?

Q11. The Election Seizure Management System (ESMS), used to digitise field seizures of cash, liquor, drugs and freebies during elections, is an in-house IT platform developed and operationalised by which one of the following?

Q12. In the context of Indian election management, the term 'Election Seizure Management System (ESMS)' most precisely refers to:

Q14. With reference to the General Elections to State/UT Legislative Assemblies for which the Election Commission of India announced the schedule on 15 March 2026, which of the following are NOT among the poll-going States/Union Territories?

Q15. The Model Code of Conduct for the 2026 General Elections to the Legislative Assemblies of Assam, Kerala, Puducherry, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal came into force with effect from which date?

Q16. What is the maximum expenditure ceiling for a candidate contesting a Lok Sabha election from a larger State (e.g., West Bengal, Tamil Nadu) under the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, as currently in force?

Q18. For the 2026 General Assembly Elections in Assam, Kerala, Puducherry, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal, how many Expenditure Observers were deployed by the Election Commission of India, drawn from Central Civil Services such as IRS, IA&AS, IRAS, IDAS, IP&TAFS and ICAS?

Q19. Under the Electoral Bonds Scheme, 2018 (since struck down by the Supreme Court), which one of the following was designated as the sole authorised institution to issue and encash electoral bonds?

Q21. Match List I (Event in the history of the Electoral Bonds Scheme) with List II (Year/Month) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

Q22. Which one of the following provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 is the principal statutory provision prescribing the time-limit within which bye-elections must be held to fill casual vacancies in Parliament and State Legislatures?

Q23. Under Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, within how many months from the date of occurrence of a casual vacancy in Parliament or a State Legislature must a bye-election ordinarily be held?