UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — A New Era of Online Gaming Governance

Q1. Under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, what is the maximum penalty prescribed for a first-time offender who offers or facilitates an online money game?

  • A. Up to 2 years imprisonment and/or fine up to Rs 50 lakh
  • B. Up to 3 years imprisonment and/or fine up to Rs 1 crore
  • C. Up to 5 years imprisonment and/or fine up to Rs 2 crore
  • D. Up to 1 year imprisonment and/or fine up to Rs 10 lakh

Q2. Under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, consider the following activities: 1. Offering online money games, whether based on chance, skill, or a combination. 2. Advertising or promotion of online money games. 3. Facilitating financial transactions for online money games through banks or payment systems. 4. Organising competitive e-sports events with registration fees and prize money. Which of the above is/are correctly identified as prohibited under the Act?

  1. Offering online money games, whether based on chance, skill, or a combination.
  2. Advertising or promotion of online money games.
  3. Facilitating financial transactions for online money games through banks or payment systems.
  4. Organising competitive e-sports events with registration fees and prize money.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q3. The Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) has been constituted as an attached office of which one of the following Ministries/Departments?

  • A. Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  • C. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • D. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

Q4. Who chairs the Online Gaming Authority of India (OGAI) in an ex officio capacity?

  • A. The Secretary, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • B. The Additional Secretary, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • C. A retired Supreme Court judge nominated by the Central Government
  • D. The Cabinet Secretary

Q5. Under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, the OGAI includes JS-level members drawn from several ministries/departments. Consider the following: 1. Ministry of Home Affairs. 2. Department of Financial Services. 3. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. 4. Department of Revenue. Which of the above is/are NOT correctly identified as contributing a member to the OGAI?

  1. Ministry of Home Affairs.
  2. Department of Financial Services.
  3. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  4. Department of Revenue.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 4 only
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 3 only

Q6. Within the framework operationalised by the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026, which one of the following best captures the definition of an 'online money game'?

  • A. An online game where a user pays money or other stakes in expectation of monetary or other enrichment, irrespective of whether it is based on skill, chance, or both
  • B. An online game based purely on chance in which the user stakes money
  • C. Any online game that charges a subscription or one-time access fee
  • D. An online game of skill in which no monetary prize is awarded

Q7. With reference to the evolution of online gaming regulation in India, consider the following statements: 1. The 2023 amendments to the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules introduced self-regulatory bodies (SRBs) to verify online games and regulate their content. 2. The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025 replaces the earlier self-regulatory approach with a central statutory Authority. 3. The Public Gambling Act, 1867 was a central statute originally enacted specifically to regulate online gaming. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The 2023 amendments to the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules introduced self-regulatory bodies (SRBs) to verify online games and regulate their content.
  2. The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025 replaces the earlier self-regulatory approach with a central statutory Authority.
  3. The Public Gambling Act, 1867 was a central statute originally enacted specifically to regulate online gaming.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q8. Departing from the earlier undifferentiated treatment of online gaming, how many distinct statutory categories of online games does the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025 establish?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five

Q9. Regarding the classification of online games under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, consider the following statements: 1. E-sports are promoted and can be recognised under the National Sports Governance Act, 2025. 2. Online social games may involve payment of subscription or access fees but must not involve stakes. 3. E-sports may involve registration fees and prize money but not betting or stakes. 4. Online money games are permitted provided they are based purely on skill. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. E-sports are promoted and can be recognised under the National Sports Governance Act, 2025.
  2. Online social games may involve payment of subscription or access fees but must not involve stakes.
  3. E-sports may involve registration fees and prize money but not betting or stakes.
  4. Online money games are permitted provided they are based purely on skill.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q10. Under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, which body is empowered to determine whether a particular online game constitutes an online money game and to register permissible games?

  • A. The Online Gaming Authority of India
  • B. The Central Board of Direct Taxes
  • C. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
  • D. The National Sports Governance Board

Q11. Which one of the following best characterises the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025?

  • A. An executive rule notified by MeitY without parliamentary enactment
  • B. A central law enacted by Parliament establishing India's first unified national framework on online gaming
  • C. A model law circulated to States for optional adoption
  • D. An amendment to the Public Gambling Act, 1867 extending it to online platforms

Q12. With reference to the passage of the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025, consider the following statements: 1. The Prime Minister welcomed the Bill, saying it would boost e-sports and safeguard society from the harms of online money games. 2. The Bill was passed by both Houses of Parliament in August 2025. 3. The Prime Minister described online money games as the flagship segment the Bill seeks to promote. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Prime Minister welcomed the Bill, saying it would boost e-sports and safeguard society from the harms of online money games.
  2. The Bill was passed by both Houses of Parliament in August 2025.
  3. The Prime Minister described online money games as the flagship segment the Bill seeks to promote.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3