UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Shri Amit Shah congratulates students on passage of the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 in Lok Sabha
Q1. Under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, which one of the following correctly describes an 'organised crime' in relation to a public examination?
- A. An unlawful act committed by a person or a group of persons in collusion, to further a shared interest for wrongful gain in relation to a public examination
- B. An unlawful act committed by two or more service providers acting under a written agreement to influence the outcome of a public examination
- C. A continuing unlawful activity by a syndicate of three or more persons, at least one of whom has been previously convicted of an examination offence
- D. An unlawful act committed by an employee of a public examination authority in conspiracy with a candidate for pecuniary benefit of either party
Q2. The parent statute amended by the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 was numbered which Act of 2024, and received the President's assent on which date?
- A. Act No. 1 of 2024; assented to on 12 February 2024
- B. Act No. 1 of 2024; assented to on 25 February 2024
- C. Act No. 9 of 2024; assented to on 12 February 2024
- D. Act No. 5 of 2024; assented to on 9 February 2024
Q3. Under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, the minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for a person committing an organised crime in relation to a public examination is how many years?
- A. Three years
- B. Five years
- C. Seven years
- D. Ten years
Q4. Investigation of an offence punishable under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 may be conducted only by a police officer not below which of the following ranks?
- A. Inspector of Police or the Station House Officer of the concerned police station
- B. Deputy Superintendent of Police or Assistant Commissioner of Police
- C. Additional Superintendent of Police or Deputy Commissioner of Police
- D. Superintendent of Police or Deputy Inspector General of Police
Q5. Under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, an appeal is to be heard by a High Court bench of how many judges, and disposed of within what period as far as possible?
- A. A single judge; within ninety days
- B. Two judges; within three months
- C. Two judges; within six months
- D. Three judges; within three months
Q6. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 was piloted in Lok Sabha on behalf of which one of the following Union Ministries?
- A. Ministry of Education, through the Department of Higher Education
- B. Ministry of Home Affairs, through the Department of Internal Security
- C. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
- D. Ministry of Law and Justice, through the Legislative Department
Q7. Among the examination malpractice incidents cited by the Government while piloting the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2024, which one of the following correctly describes what befell the Rajasthan Eligibility Examination for Teachers in February 2022?
- A. The examination was vitiated by malpractice and had to be re-conducted
- B. The examination was cancelled outright and was not subsequently re-held
- C. The examination was held as scheduled, but its results were withheld indefinitely
- D. The examination was deferred before it began, following a question paper leak
Q8. Consider the following details of examination malpractice in Rajasthan, as placed before Parliament when the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2024 was piloted:
1. Rajasthan Teacher Recruitment Scam — December 2022
2. Rajasthan Eligibility Examination for Teachers, re-conducted after malpractice — February 2022
3. Rajasthan Police Constable Recruitment Examination scam — May 2023
4. Total number of examination malpractice incidents in the State since 2018 — 21
Which of the above is/are NOT correctly stated?
- Rajasthan Teacher Recruitment Scam — December 2022
- Rajasthan Eligibility Examination for Teachers, re-conducted after malpractice — February 2022
- Rajasthan Police Constable Recruitment Examination scam — May 2023
- Total number of examination malpractice incidents in the State since 2018 — 21
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 3 and 4
- C. 2 and 3
- D. 4 only
Q9. In the official announcement of the introduction of the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, how many distinct Union portfolios were listed against the Minister who introduced it?
- A. Three
- B. Four
- C. Five
- D. Six
Q10. The Minister who introduced the Bill is designated a 'Minister of State (Independent Charge)'. Which one of the following correctly describes that designation?
- A. A Minister of State who is not in the Union Cabinet but heads the assigned ministry without a Cabinet Minister above them in it
- B. A Minister of State who is a full member of the Union Cabinet for the single ministry that has been assigned to them
- C. A Minister of State entitled as of right to attend all meetings of the Union Cabinet and to vote on its business
- D. A Minister of State holding charge of one ministry jointly with the Cabinet Minister who heads a different ministry
Q11. Consider the following statements regarding the legislative history of the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024:
1. It was introduced in Lok Sabha on 5 February 2024.
2. It was passed by Lok Sabha on 6 February 2024.
3. It was passed by Rajya Sabha on 9 February 2024.
4. It was brought into force with effect from 21 February 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
- It was introduced in Lok Sabha on 5 February 2024.
- It was passed by Lok Sabha on 6 February 2024.
- It was passed by Rajya Sabha on 9 February 2024.
- It was brought into force with effect from 21 February 2024.
- A. 1 and 4
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 3 and 4
- D. 4 only