UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Rajya Sabha Passes Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 by Voice Vote

Q1. With reference to the changes proposed by the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 to the parent Act of 2024, consider the following: 1. The imprisonment for a person resorting to unfair means is raised from three to five years to five to ten years. 2. The maximum fine imposable on a service provider is raised from one crore rupees to five crore rupees. 3. The minimum fine for an organised crime in relation to public examinations is raised from one crore rupees to five crore rupees. 4. The period of debarment of an errant service provider from conducting public examinations is raised from four years to eight years. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The imprisonment for a person resorting to unfair means is raised from three to five years to five to ten years.
  2. The maximum fine imposable on a service provider is raised from one crore rupees to five crore rupees.
  3. The minimum fine for an organised crime in relation to public examinations is raised from one crore rupees to five crore rupees.
  4. The period of debarment of an errant service provider from conducting public examinations is raised from four years to eight years.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q2. Under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, beyond what outer limit shall the High Court not entertain an appeal against an order of a Special Fast Track Court?

  • A. Thirty days from the date of the order appealed against
  • B. Sixty days from the date of the order appealed against
  • C. Ninety days from the date of the order appealed against
  • D. One hundred and eighty days from the date of the order appealed against

Q3. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 and its 2026 amendment are piloted in Parliament by which one of the following?

  • A. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
  • B. The Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education
  • C. The Ministry of Home Affairs, through its internal security division
  • D. The Legislative Department, Ministry of Law and Justice

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the legislative timeline of the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024: 1. The Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 5 February 2024. 2. The Bill was passed by the Rajya Sabha on 9 February 2024. 3. The Act was enacted on 12 February 2024. 4. The Act came into force on 12 February 2024, that is, on the date of its enactment itself. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 5 February 2024.
  2. The Bill was passed by the Rajya Sabha on 9 February 2024.
  3. The Act was enacted on 12 February 2024.
  4. The Act came into force on 12 February 2024, that is, on the date of its enactment itself.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 3 and 4 only
  • D. 4 only

Q5. With reference to the enforcement machinery under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, consider the following: 1. All offences under the Act are cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable. 2. Offences shall be investigated by an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police or Assistant Commissioner of Police. 3. The central government may hand over the investigation of an offence to a central investigating agency. 4. The Act empowers the central government to constitute a special task force to investigate offences. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. All offences under the Act are cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable.
  2. Offences shall be investigated by an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police or Assistant Commissioner of Police.
  3. The central government may hand over the investigation of an offence to a central investigating agency.
  4. The Act empowers the central government to constitute a special task force to investigate offences.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q6. Consider the following punishments as prescribed by the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 as originally enacted: 1. A person resorting to unfair means - imprisonment of three to five years and fine up to ten lakh rupees. 2. A director or member of senior management of a service provider, where the offence was committed with his consent or connivance - imprisonment of three to ten years and fine of one crore rupees. 3. Commission of an organised crime in relation to a public examination - imprisonment of five to ten years and fine of not less than one crore rupees. 4. A service provider institution - debarment for four years from conducting public examinations along with a mandatory minimum imprisonment of seven years for its officers. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. A person resorting to unfair means - imprisonment of three to five years and fine up to ten lakh rupees.
  2. A director or member of senior management of a service provider, where the offence was committed with his consent or connivance - imprisonment of three to ten years and fine of one crore rupees.
  3. Commission of an organised crime in relation to a public examination - imprisonment of five to ten years and fine of not less than one crore rupees.
  4. A service provider institution - debarment for four years from conducting public examinations along with a mandatory minimum imprisonment of seven years for its officers.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q7. Offences under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 are to be investigated by an officer not below which one of the following ranks?

  • A. Inspector of Police in charge of the police station concerned
  • B. Deputy Superintendent of Police or Assistant Commissioner of Police
  • C. Superintendent of Police or Deputy Commissioner of Police
  • D. Inspector General of Police of the range concerned

Q8. Consider the following statements about State anti-cheating laws for competitive examinations: 1. Rajasthan enacted its anti-cheating law in 2022. 2. Uttarakhand's 2023 law debars a candidate only after conviction by a competent court. 3. Gujarat's 2023 law extends to examinations conducted by its Secondary and Higher Secondary Education Board. 4. Andhra Pradesh's law of 1997 prescribes a maximum imprisonment of three months. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Rajasthan enacted its anti-cheating law in 2022.
  2. Uttarakhand's 2023 law debars a candidate only after conviction by a competent court.
  3. Gujarat's 2023 law extends to examinations conducted by its Secondary and Higher Secondary Education Board.
  4. Andhra Pradesh's law of 1997 prescribes a maximum imprisonment of three months.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q9. Uttarakhand's 2023 anti-cheating law is noted for prescribing a fixed term of imprisonment for a first offence, irrespective of the gravity of the act. That fixed term is of how many years?

  • A. Two years, extendable at the discretion of the trial court
  • B. Three years, with no discretion left to the trial court
  • C. Five years, with no discretion left to the trial court
  • D. Seven years, extendable at the discretion of the trial court

Q10. Consider the following statements comparing the position before the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 with the position after it: 1. Before 2024 there was no dedicated central law on unfair means in public examinations, although several States, including Rajasthan and Uttarakhand, already had their own anti-cheating statutes. 2. The 2024 Act applies to every examination conducted anywhere in India and entirely supersedes all State anti-cheating laws. 3. The 2024 Act was presented as covering both recruitment examinations such as those of the UPSC and SSC and entrance tests such as NEET, JEE and CUET. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Before 2024 there was no dedicated central law on unfair means in public examinations, although several States, including Rajasthan and Uttarakhand, already had their own anti-cheating statutes.
  2. The 2024 Act applies to every examination conducted anywhere in India and entirely supersedes all State anti-cheating laws.
  3. The 2024 Act was presented as covering both recruitment examinations such as those of the UPSC and SSC and entrance tests such as NEET, JEE and CUET.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q11. Consider the following statements comparing the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 with its 2026 Amendment Bill: 1. The Schedule to the 2024 Act specifies six categories of public examination authorities, among which is the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection. 2. Unlike the 2024 Act, the 2026 Amendment Bill empowers the central government to refer investigation of offences to a Special Task Force constituted for that purpose. 3. Both the 2024 Act and the 2026 Amendment Bill place the National Testing Agency under the administrative control of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Schedule to the 2024 Act specifies six categories of public examination authorities, among which is the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection.
  2. Unlike the 2024 Act, the 2026 Amendment Bill empowers the central government to refer investigation of offences to a Special Task Force constituted for that purpose.
  3. Both the 2024 Act and the 2026 Amendment Bill place the National Testing Agency under the administrative control of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3