Agriculture MCQs for UPSC Prelims — January 2026

Q1. Under the Digital Agriculture Mission administered by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, digital Farmer IDs are targeted to be issued to how many crore farmers?

  • A. 6 crore
  • B. 9 crore
  • C. 11 crore
  • D. 14 crore

Q2. The Digital Agriculture Mission, the umbrella scheme operationalising AgriStack, was formally sanctioned under whose authority and in which year?

  • A. The Union Cabinet, in September 2024
  • B. The NITI Aayog Governing Council, in 2023
  • C. The Inter-State Council, in 2024
  • D. The Department of Agriculture through an executive order, in 2021

Q3. Consider the following pairs of Digital Agriculture Mission components and their descriptions. Which one of the pairs is NOT correctly matched?

  1. AgriStack — comprises three foundational registries including the Farmers' Registry
  2. Krishi Decision Support System — a geospatial system unifying remote-sensing data on crops, soil, weather and water
  3. Soil Profile Mapping — detailed soil profile maps on a 1:10,000 scale
  4. Farmer ID — a physical Kisan Credit Card issued for MSP procurement
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 4 only

Q4. AgriStack, India's core Digital Public Infrastructure for agriculture, is operationalised by which one of the following?

  • A. The Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare (Department of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare)
  • B. The Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology
  • C. The Ministry of Rural Development
  • D. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj

Q5. Under the AgriStack Farmer ID target of 11 crore, in which single financial year is the largest number of Farmer IDs planned to be generated?

  • A. FY 2023-24
  • B. FY 2024-25
  • C. FY 2025-26
  • D. FY 2026-27

Q6. In the context of AgriStack, the term 'Farmer ID' ('Kisan ki Pehchaan') is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. A trusted digital identity for farmers, similar to Aadhaar, dynamically linked to land records, crops sown and scheme benefits
  • B. A physical smart card issued only to Kisan Credit Card holders to authorise MSP procurement
  • C. A unique registration number assigned to each Farmer Producer Organisation (FPO)
  • D. A biometric authentication device installed at Common Service Centres for scheme enrolment

Q7. Which of the following are correctly identified as the three foundational registries of AgriStack?

  1. Farmers' Registry
  2. Geo-referenced Village Maps
  3. Crop Sown Registry
  4. Soil Profile Registry
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q8. Comparing the new Seed Act (draft Seeds Bill, 2025) with the earlier regime and its implementing machinery, consider the following statements: 1. Unlike the Seeds Act, 1966, the draft Bill makes registration of all seed companies mandatory. 2. The draft Bill raises the maximum penalty for spurious seeds from up to ₹500 to up to ₹30 lakh. 3. India's network of Krishi Vigyan Kendras, which is to spread seed awareness, numbers 638 across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Unlike the Seeds Act, 1966, the draft Bill makes registration of all seed companies mandatory.
  2. The draft Bill raises the maximum penalty for spurious seeds from up to ₹500 to up to ₹30 lakh.
  3. India's network of Krishi Vigyan Kendras, which is to spread seed awareness, numbers 638 across the country.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. A farmer's right to save, use, sow, re-sow, exchange, share or sell farm produce, including seed of a registered variety in an unbranded manner, is expressly guaranteed under which one of the following?

  • A. The Seeds Act, 1966
  • B. The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001
  • C. The draft Seeds Bill, 2025
  • D. The Essential Commodities Act, 1955

Q10. Which one of the following was the first central legislation in India to regulate the quality of seeds?

  • A. The Essential Commodities Act, 1955
  • B. The Seeds Act, 1966
  • C. The Seeds (Control) Order, 1983
  • D. The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001

Q11. In the evolution of India's seed regulation, the Seeds (Control) Order, 1983 is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. An order promulgated under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, requiring licensing of persons who sell, export or import seeds
  • B. A subordinate rule framed under the Seeds Act, 1966, applicable only to notified varieties
  • C. A sui generis intellectual-property statute protecting plant breeders and farmers
  • D. A scheme of the Ministry of Agriculture establishing Krishi Vigyan Kendras

Q12. In the context of the new Seed Act (draft Seeds Bill, 2025), the 'Centralised Seed Traceability Portal' is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. A central-government platform for tracking seed production and distribution through which QR codes/labels on seed packets are generated
  • B. A state-level licensing register for seed dealers maintained under the Essential Commodities Act
  • C. A price-fixation exchange where seed companies bid for minimum support prices
  • D. An intellectual-property registry recording farmers' varieties under the PPVFR Act

Q13. With reference to the traceability architecture proposed under the new Seed Act (draft Seeds Bill, 2025), consider the following statements: 1. Every seed packet is to carry a QR code disclosing producer, dealer and seller details. 2. The QR code can be generated through a Centralised Seed Traceability Portal. 3. Registration of all seed companies is to be made mandatory. 4. The QR-code requirement extends to farmer-to-farmer exchange of traditional seed varieties. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Every seed packet is to carry a QR code disclosing producer, dealer and seller details.
  2. The QR code can be generated through a Centralised Seed Traceability Portal.
  3. Registration of all seed companies is to be made mandatory.
  4. The QR-code requirement extends to farmer-to-farmer exchange of traditional seed varieties.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 4

Q14. With reference to the penalty framework proposed under the new Seed Act (draft Seeds Bill, 2025), consider the following statements: 1. The maximum fine proposed for selling substandard/fake seeds is ₹30 lakh. 2. Under the earlier regime the penalty was as low as up to ₹500. 3. Imprisonment of up to three years is proposed for deliberate offences. 4. The proposed fine represents an increase from a previous maximum of ₹5,000. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The maximum fine proposed for selling substandard/fake seeds is ₹30 lakh.
  2. Under the earlier regime the penalty was as low as up to ₹500.
  3. Imprisonment of up to three years is proposed for deliberate offences.
  4. The proposed fine represents an increase from a previous maximum of ₹5,000.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q15. Under the new Seed Act (draft Seeds Bill, 2025), the maximum term of imprisonment proposed for the deliberate sale or production of spurious/substandard seeds is up to how many years?

  • A. One year
  • B. Two years
  • C. Three years
  • D. Five years

Q16. The principal central legislation regulating seed quality that the new Seed Act (draft Seeds Bill, 2025) seeks to replace was enacted in which year?

  • A. 1955
  • B. 1966
  • C. 1983
  • D. 2001

Q17. The draft Seeds Bill, 2025, on which the Union Agriculture Minister announced 'historic reforms for farmers', is intended to replace how many of the existing central seed-regulation instruments (the Seeds Act, 1966 and the Seeds (Control) Order, 1983)?

  • A. One
  • B. Two
  • C. Three
  • D. Four

Q18. With reference to wheat procurement and the Rabi Marketing Season (RMS), which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. Wheat for the central pool is procured by the Food Corporation of India along with designated State Agencies.
  2. The wheat procurement estimate for RMS 2025-26 was fixed at 310 LMT.
  3. Actual wheat procurement in RMS 2025-26 was about 300.35 LMT.
  4. The wheat procurement target for RMS 2026-27 has been set at 266 LMT.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 4 only

Q19. The weekly 'Progress of Area Coverage' bulletins for the Rabi and Kharif seasons are published by which one of the following ministries?

  • A. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution
  • B. Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare
  • C. Ministry of Rural Development
  • D. Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation

Q20. As on 9 January 2026, which single crop accounted for the largest area under Rabi cultivation?

  • A. Gram (Chana)
  • B. Rapeseed & Mustard
  • C. Wheat
  • D. Rice

Q21. Into how many principal cropping seasons is the Indian agricultural year conventionally divided?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five

Q22. In the Indian agricultural calendar, the term 'Rabi crop' most precisely refers to a crop that is:

  • A. sown at the onset of the south-west monsoon (June-July) and harvested in September-October
  • B. sown in the winter (October-December) and harvested in spring (March-April)
  • C. grown in the short summer season between Rabi and Kharif with irrigation
  • D. grown throughout the year under fully assured irrigation, independent of season

Q23. Regarding the Directorate of Economics & Statistics (DES) and the Normal Area benchmark, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. The DES functions under the Department of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
  2. The Normal Area is derived by averaging the last five years' sown area.
  3. Weekly Rabi sowing progress is reported against the Normal Area.
  4. The DES fixes the Minimum Support Price for Rabi crops.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 4 only

Q24. The crop-wise weekly area-coverage figures released in the 'Progress of Area Coverage under Rabi Crops' bulletin are compiled by which one of the following?

  • A. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
  • B. Directorate of Economics & Statistics (DES) under the Department of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
  • C. Mahalanobis National Crop Forecast Centre (MNCFC)
  • D. Food Corporation of India (FCI)

Q25. Within the ICAR–NDDB alliance covering the dairy value chain, the partner that contributes multidisciplinary scientific research and technology-development capacity is exclusively which body?

  • A. NDDB
  • B. ICAR
  • C. Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying
  • D. National Dairy Research Institute (as an independent signatory)

Q26. The 2019 MoU signed by ICAR to facilitate action research and up-scaling of ICAR technologies and innovative farmer models was concluded with which institution?

  • A. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
  • B. National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)
  • C. Small Farmers' Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC)
  • D. Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)

Q27. With reference to India's position in global dairy as of the latest available data, consider the following statements: 1. India has ranked first in world milk production since 1998. 2. India contributes about 25% of global milk output. 3. India's milk production in 2023-24 was about 239 million tonnes. 4. India's per capita milk availability is below the world average. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. India has ranked first in world milk production since 1998.
  2. India contributes about 25% of global milk output.
  3. India's milk production in 2023-24 was about 239 million tonnes.
  4. India's per capita milk availability is below the world average.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 2 and 4

Q28. During Operation Flood, the number of milksheds linked to major urban markets rose from 18 in Phase I to how many by the end of Phase II?

  • A. 73
  • B. 136
  • C. 290
  • D. 43

Q29. Phase I of Operation Flood (1970–80) was financed largely through the sale of skimmed milk powder and butter oil donated by which body?

  • A. The World Bank under an IDA soft loan
  • B. The European Economic Community, channelled through the World Food Programme
  • C. The United States under the PL-480 food aid programme
  • D. The Food and Agriculture Organization from its own reserves

Q30. Consider the following statements about the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB): 1. It was established in 1965 at Anand, Gujarat. 2. It was accorded statutory status by an Act of Parliament in 1987. 3. Its founder chairman was Dr. Verghese Kurien. 4. Its founder chairman was Dr. M.S. Swaminathan. Which of the pairings/statements above is/are NOT correctly identified?

  1. It was established in 1965 at Anand, Gujarat.
  2. It was accorded statutory status by an Act of Parliament in 1987.
  3. Its founder chairman was Dr. Verghese Kurien.
  4. Its founder chairman was Dr. M.S. Swaminathan.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 2 and 4