Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC Prelims

Q1. Which of the following sports are correctly identified as first-time or returning sports in India's contingent for the 20th Asian Games? 1. Esports 2. Teqball 3. Jiu-jitsu 4. Sport climbing Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Esports
  2. Teqball
  3. Jiu-jitsu
  4. Sport climbing
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q2. In the context of India's preparations for the 2026 Asian Games, the 'Target Asian Games Group (TAGG)' refers to:

  • A. an Indian government support framework for sports judged able to improve India's medal chances at the Asian Games
  • B. an Olympic Council of Asia panel that decides which new sports are added to each Asian Games programme
  • C. a Delhi High Court-appointed committee that reviews athlete nominations missing the Asian Games cut-off date
  • D. a group of Asian nations ranked in the top eight internationally, used to seed Asian Games team events

Q3. With reference to the September 2026 litigation over India not fielding an athlete in the men's 94-kg jiu-jitsu event at the Asian Games, consider the following pairs: 1. Forum that dismissed the athlete's plea — Supreme Court of India 2. Host of the Games in question — Hangzhou, China 3. Centre's procedural objection — athlete's name forwarded after the prescribed cut-off date 4. Reason reported for dropping jiu-jitsu from India's contingent — failure to meet all Target Asian Games Group (TAGG) criteria Which of the pairs given above is/are NOT correctly matched?

  1. Forum that dismissed the athlete's plea — Supreme Court of India
  2. Host of the Games in question — Hangzhou, China
  3. Centre's procedural objection — athlete's name forwarded after the prescribed cut-off date
  4. Reason reported for dropping jiu-jitsu from India's contingent — failure to meet all Target Asian Games Group (TAGG) criteria
  • A. 2 only
  • B. 1 and 2
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q4. In its 2026 ruling on the SIR, the Supreme Court described the Election Commission's scrutiny of citizenship as 'limited'. According to the Court, the final determination of a person's citizenship rests with:

  • A. the Electoral Registration Officer, under the Representation of the People Act, 1950
  • B. the Election Commission of India, under Article 324 of the Constitution
  • C. the competent authorities under the Citizenship Act, 1955
  • D. the Chief Electoral Officer, under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960

Q5. Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's scrutiny of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) in Bihar (2025): 1. After the Court's direction, the ECI told its Bihar poll machinery to accept Aadhaar as a 12th document, in addition to the 11 documents it had listed. 2. Persons excluded from the Bihar draft roll were barred from using Aadhaar in claims for re-inclusion. 3. The ECI's directive of June 24 required electors not listed in the 2003 electoral roll to submit documents. 4. The Court held that an Aadhaar card, once furnished, is final proof of citizenship and needs no independent verification. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. After the Court's direction, the ECI told its Bihar poll machinery to accept Aadhaar as a 12th document, in addition to the 11 documents it had listed.
  2. Persons excluded from the Bihar draft roll were barred from using Aadhaar in claims for re-inclusion.
  3. The ECI's directive of June 24 required electors not listed in the 2003 electoral roll to submit documents.
  4. The Court held that an Aadhaar card, once furnished, is final proof of citizenship and needs no independent verification.
  • A. 2 only
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 4 only

Q6. In the context of the ongoing Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, an 'unmapped' elector refers to a person:

  • A. whose name has been permanently deleted from the roll for failing to prove citizenship before the ERO
  • B. who has never been enrolled in any electoral roll anywhere in India and applies afresh in Form 6
  • C. who has necessarily been declared a foreign national by a competent tribunal during the revision
  • D. whose current roll entry could not be linked, directly or through a relative, to the roll of the last intensive revision

Q7. Consider the following statements comparing the corrective measures the Election Commission of India announced in September 2026 on the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) with the procedure followed until then: 1. Electors issued notices for being 'unmapped' or for logical discrepancies will no longer be called to the ERO/AERO office for a hearing; instead, BLOs will collect their documents at home and upload them on ECINet for the ERO's decision. 2. The declaration earlier required with Form 6 from new electors has been withdrawn altogether, after the Supreme Court struck it down. 3. Persons left out during the SIR, including first-time voters, can apply to the ERO through continuous updation, and CEOs, DEOs and EROs have been directed to run a special enrolment drive for them. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Electors issued notices for being 'unmapped' or for logical discrepancies will no longer be called to the ERO/AERO office for a hearing; instead, BLOs will collect their documents at home and upload them on ECINet for the ERO's decision.
  2. The declaration earlier required with Form 6 from new electors has been withdrawn altogether, after the Supreme Court struck it down.
  3. Persons left out during the SIR, including first-time voters, can apply to the ERO through continuous updation, and CEOs, DEOs and EROs have been directed to run a special enrolment drive for them.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q8. The R3 Language Assessment Framework, under which the third language is assessed internally by schools instead of through a Board examination at the Class X stage, has been prescribed by which one of the following?

  • A. PARAKH, the National Assessment Centre
  • B. National Council of Educational Research and Training
  • C. Central Board of Secondary Education
  • D. Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education

Q9. Consider the following statements about the three-language scheme introduced by the Central Board of Secondary Education that is under challenge before the Supreme Court: 1. For Class IX, the study of three languages designated R1, R2 and R3 is compulsory, with at least two of them being native Indian languages. 2. No Board examination is to be conducted for the third language (R3) at the Class X level. 3. The current batch of Class 10 students has been exempted from the requirement of studying three languages. 4. The three-language requirement for Class 6 takes effect from the 2025-26 academic session. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. For Class IX, the study of three languages designated R1, R2 and R3 is compulsory, with at least two of them being native Indian languages.
  2. No Board examination is to be conducted for the third language (R3) at the Class X level.
  3. The current batch of Class 10 students has been exempted from the requirement of studying three languages.
  4. The three-language requirement for Class 6 takes effect from the 2025-26 academic session.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 4

Q10. With reference to the Supreme Court proceedings in the '₹370 biryani' matter, consider the following: 1. The petitioner before the Supreme Court is a stand-up comedian who hosted the show at which the remark was made. 2. Notice on the plea was issued to the Union government and to the States of Maharashtra and Haryana. 3. The FIR registered by the Maharashtra Cyber Police invoked provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. 4. The plea was heard by a two-judge Bench of the Supreme Court headed by Justice Joymalya Bagchi. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The petitioner before the Supreme Court is a stand-up comedian who hosted the show at which the remark was made.
  2. Notice on the plea was issued to the Union government and to the States of Maharashtra and Haryana.
  3. The FIR registered by the Maharashtra Cyber Police invoked provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
  4. The plea was heard by a two-judge Bench of the Supreme Court headed by Justice Joymalya Bagchi.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q11. Consider the following statements about the 2026 Nepal flood disaster: 1. It was set off by a glacier and ice-rock collapse in the Langtang-Lirung region. 2. The destruction of settlements, bridges and roads propagated along the Bhotekoshi-Trishuli river system. 3. The event permanently drained every glacial lake in Nepal's Koshi basin, eliminating all future outburst risk in the country. 4. Nepal sought an initial claim of about $20 million from the UN Loss and Damage Fund. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. It was set off by a glacier and ice-rock collapse in the Langtang-Lirung region.
  2. The destruction of settlements, bridges and roads propagated along the Bhotekoshi-Trishuli river system.
  3. The event permanently drained every glacial lake in Nepal's Koshi basin, eliminating all future outburst risk in the country.
  4. Nepal sought an initial claim of about $20 million from the UN Loss and Damage Fund.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q12. In September 2026, the leader holding the highest office in the Indian National Congress organisation — its national President — attacked the UPI merchant-charge decision as a 'surrender' that showed the Government's 'meekness'. Who was this leader?

  • A. Mallikarjun Kharge
  • B. Rahul Gandhi
  • C. Jairam Ramesh
  • D. K. C. Venugopal

Q13. Which one of the following statements about Bharat Mandapam, the venue of the 18th BRICS Summit, is correct?

  • A. It was constructed exclusively for the G20 Leaders' Summit of 2023 and has hosted no exhibition or trade fair since then.
  • B. It is the only venue in Delhi that has ever hosted a BRICS Leaders' Summit under India's Chairship of the grouping.
  • C. It has entirely replaced Vigyan Bhawan as the site of all conferences and ceremonial functions of the Government of India.
  • D. It houses the largest hall of the Pragati Maidan complex, a convention hall with a seating capacity of about 7,000.

Q14. Bharat Mandapam, the convention centre of the International Exhibition-cum-Convention Centre complex at Pragati Maidan, was inaugurated by the Prime Minister in which one of the following months and years?

  • A. September 2021
  • B. July 2023
  • C. September 2023
  • D. July 2024

Q15. The Delhi Traffic Police advisory issued for the BRICS Summit 2026 brought more than 35 roads of the capital under control. How many diversion points were identified in that advisory?

  • A. 12
  • B. 22
  • C. 30
  • D. 45

Q16. Which one of the following bodies lifted its suspension of the Wrestling Federation of India in February 2024, while directing that wrestlers who had taken part in the protests should not be discriminated against?

  • A. The Indian Olympic Association, acting through the ad-hoc committee it had constituted for wrestling
  • B. The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India, by an order restoring National Sports Federation status
  • C. The Court of Arbitration for Sport at Lausanne, in an appeal filed by the suspended office-bearers
  • D. United World Wrestling, the international federation that governs the sport worldwide

Q17. With reference to the career of the wrestler Vinesh Phogat, consider the following statements: 1. She was disqualified at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games for being 100 grams above the limit in the 50 kg category on the morning of her gold-medal bout. 2. Her two World Championships bronze medals were won in the 53 kg weight category. 3. She informed the International Testing Agency in December 2024 of a sabbatical on account of pregnancy, and was confirmed eligible to compete again from 1 January 2026. 4. She gave birth in July 2025, following which the Wrestling Federation of India barred her from all events until June 2026 for returning an adverse analytical finding for clomifene. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. She was disqualified at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games for being 100 grams above the limit in the 50 kg category on the morning of her gold-medal bout.
  2. Her two World Championships bronze medals were won in the 53 kg weight category.
  3. She informed the International Testing Agency in December 2024 of a sabbatical on account of pregnancy, and was confirmed eligible to compete again from 1 January 2026.
  4. She gave birth in July 2025, following which the Wrestling Federation of India barred her from all events until June 2026 for returning an adverse analytical finding for clomifene.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 4 only

Q18. With reference to the competitive record of the wrestler Vinesh Phogat, consider the following statements: 1. She won a gold medal in women's freestyle wrestling at the 2018 Asian Games held in Jakarta. 2. She has won bronze medals at the World Wrestling Championships in 2019 and again in 2022. 3. She has competed at three editions of the Olympic Games. 4. She is the only Indian woman ever to have won a gold medal in wrestling at the Commonwealth Games. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. She won a gold medal in women's freestyle wrestling at the 2018 Asian Games held in Jakarta.
  2. She has won bronze medals at the World Wrestling Championships in 2019 and again in 2022.
  3. She has competed at three editions of the Olympic Games.
  4. She is the only Indian woman ever to have won a gold medal in wrestling at the Commonwealth Games.
  • A. 1 and 4 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q19. Consider the following statements about the Wrestling Federation of India's selection trials for the 2026 Senior World Wrestling Championships: 1. Wrestlers already selected in the Asian Games squad were barred from entering the first round of the World Championships trials and could contest a berth only through a separate 'final trial'. 2. The first round of trials in the six Olympic weight categories for women was scheduled for 14 September 2026 at the Indira Gandhi Stadium, New Delhi. 3. Trials for men's freestyle and Greco-Roman were scheduled for the following day at the Sports Authority of India Centre, Lucknow. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Wrestlers already selected in the Asian Games squad were barred from entering the first round of the World Championships trials and could contest a berth only through a separate 'final trial'.
  2. The first round of trials in the six Olympic weight categories for women was scheduled for 14 September 2026 at the Indira Gandhi Stadium, New Delhi.
  3. Trials for men's freestyle and Greco-Roman were scheduled for the following day at the Sports Authority of India Centre, Lucknow.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q20. In its investigation into the NEET-UG 2026 paper leak, the CBI identified the original source of the leaked question paper as:

  • A. a Physics teacher employed with a private coaching institute that ran residential batches for medical aspirants
  • B. a supervisor at the security printing press contracted to print and pack the question paper booklets
  • C. a Chemistry lecturer engaged in the examination process on behalf of the National Testing Agency, who had access to the papers
  • D. a centre superintendent of an examination centre who opened the sealed booklets ahead of the scheduled reporting time

Q21. When central Delhi Metro stations, including the Supreme Court station, were shut during the CJP agitation, which one of the following bodies moved the Supreme Court on the ground that the closures were preventing lawyers and litigants from reaching the Court?

  • A. The Bar Council of India, the statutory body regulating the legal profession in the country
  • B. The Supreme Court Bar Association, the association of advocates practising in the apex court
  • C. The Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association, the body of advocates entitled to file cases in the apex court
  • D. The Delhi High Court Bar Association, the association of advocates practising in the Delhi High Court

Q22. During the CJP agitation in central Delhi in 2026, how many Delhi Metro stations were reopened when the DMRC announced that normal entry and exit had resumed at the end of the closures?

  • A. 15
  • B. 16
  • C. 17
  • D. 18

Q23. Under the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025, how many existing statutory regulators of education are proposed to be replaced by the single Commission it creates?

  • A. Two, namely the University Grants Commission and the All India Council for Technical Education
  • B. Three, namely the University Grants Commission, the All India Council for Technical Education and the National Council for Teacher Education
  • C. Four, namely the University Grants Commission, the All India Council for Technical Education, the National Council for Teacher Education and the National Medical Commission
  • D. All statutory professional regulators of education, including those for medical, legal and veterinary education, without exception

Q24. Consider the following statements comparing the regulation of coaching centres by the Union Government and by Rajasthan: 1. The Union Ministry of Education's Guidelines for Regulation of Coaching Centres were issued in 2024 and sent to States and Union Territories for consideration by way of an appropriate legal framework. 2. While the Union guidelines only suggested registration of coaching centres, the Rajasthan legislation makes registration valid for three years and requires each branch of a centre to register separately. 3. Rajasthan enacted its Coaching Centres (Control and Regulation) legislation in 2023, that is, before the Union Ministry of Education issued its guidelines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Union Ministry of Education's Guidelines for Regulation of Coaching Centres were issued in 2024 and sent to States and Union Territories for consideration by way of an appropriate legal framework.
  2. While the Union guidelines only suggested registration of coaching centres, the Rajasthan legislation makes registration valid for three years and requires each branch of a centre to register separately.
  3. Rajasthan enacted its Coaching Centres (Control and Regulation) legislation in 2023, that is, before the Union Ministry of Education issued its guidelines.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q25. Under the Rajasthan Coaching Centres (Control and Regulation) Bill, 2025, which one of the following correctly states the coverage of the expression 'coaching centre'?

  • A. Any institute imparting coaching for a competitive examination, irrespective of the number of students, with one registration covering all its branches in the State
  • B. An institute coaching more than fifty students, where hostel or residential facilities are provided along with classroom instruction
  • C. An institute coaching more than two hundred and fifty students for engineering or medical entrance examinations, other than schools affiliated to a recognised board
  • D. An institute coaching more than one hundred students for any study programme, competitive examination or academic support, each branch requiring separate registration

Q26. 'Chhatron Ki Goonj', recently in the news, is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. A nationwide student-outreach exercise run by the Indian National Congress that documents grievances about the education system through city-wise interactions, an online feedback form and video messages
  • B. A Ministry of Education initiative under the National Education Policy 2020 that collects student feedback on curriculum load through a dedicated national portal and video submissions
  • C. A University Grants Commission scheme that requires every higher education institution to constitute a student grievance redressal cell and report complaints annually
  • D. A federation of student unions of central universities that submits an annual memorandum on examination reform to the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Education

Q27. The fifth and latest edition of 'Chhatron Ki Goonj', the student-outreach interaction convened by the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, was scheduled to be held in which one of the following cities?

  • A. Pune, in Maharashtra, which had hosted an earlier edition of the interaction
  • B. Indore, in Madhya Pradesh, on 19 September 2026
  • C. Kota, in Rajasthan, the country's best-known competitive-exam coaching hub
  • D. Prayagraj, in Uttar Pradesh, a major centre for civil services aspirants

Q28. In the proceedings before the Supreme Court, the 'digital footprint' that the Uttar Pradesh Police had sought from the platform is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. Account registration records, login and logout IP addresses, alternate email and mobile details, and device and location particulars of the account
  • B. The full text of the account holder's direct messages and deleted posts, retrieved in decrypted form from the platform's servers
  • C. Engagement analytics of the account, including reach, impressions and follower demographics maintained by the platform for advertisers
  • D. Payment and subscription records of the account, including billing addresses and transaction identifiers held by the platform

Q29. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court proceedings on the Uttar Pradesh Police's request for a journalist's data from the platform X: 1. The first information report that triggered the request arose from an alleged road-rage incident in Ghaziabad in August 2026, whereas the data sought from the platform covered a period beginning in June 2026, that is, before the alleged incident. 2. The Bench directed the Ghaziabad Police Commissioner to place on record, by affidavit, exactly what information had been sought from the platform. 3. The Bench declined to entertain the petition and relegated the journalist to the Allahabad High Court for relief under Article 226. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The first information report that triggered the request arose from an alleged road-rage incident in Ghaziabad in August 2026, whereas the data sought from the platform covered a period beginning in June 2026, that is, before the alleged incident.
  2. The Bench directed the Ghaziabad Police Commissioner to place on record, by affidavit, exactly what information had been sought from the platform.
  3. The Bench declined to entertain the petition and relegated the journalist to the Allahabad High Court for relief under Article 226.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q30. For how many capital acquisition proposals did the Defence Acquisition Council accord Acceptance of Necessity during the financial year 2025-26?

  • A. 35 proposals
  • B. 45 proposals
  • C. 55 proposals
  • D. 65 proposals