Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC Prelims
Q1. With reference to the Disha Salian case and the Bombay High Court's order of September 2026, consider the following statements:
1. The Mumbai Police originally treated the death as an Accidental Death Report and did not register a First Information Report.
2. The petition decided by the Bombay High Court was filed by the deceased's father, seeking registration of an FIR and transfer of the investigation to the CBI.
3. While ordering the CBI investigation, the Division Bench directed that the individuals named in the petition be arraigned as accused at the outset of the investigation.
4. The petitioner had earlier moved the Supreme Court, which itself ordered the transfer of the investigation to the CBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
- The Mumbai Police originally treated the death as an Accidental Death Report and did not register a First Information Report.
- The petition decided by the Bombay High Court was filed by the deceased's father, seeking registration of an FIR and transfer of the investigation to the CBI.
- While ordering the CBI investigation, the Division Bench directed that the individuals named in the petition be arraigned as accused at the outset of the investigation.
- The petitioner had earlier moved the Supreme Court, which itself ordered the transfer of the investigation to the CBI.
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 3 and 4
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Q2. In June 2020, the death of celebrity manager Disha Salian at Malad and the death of actor Sushant Singh Rajput at Bandra occurred within days of each other, a proximity that drove the demand to link the two probes. The two deaths were separated by an interval of how many days?
- A. Two days
- B. Six days
- C. Eleven days
- D. Nineteen days
Q3. In directing Tamil Nadu to create a 'specified channel' for purse seine vessels transiting to the exclusive economic zone, the Supreme Court rested its direction principally on which one of the following?
- A. Rules 15(5) and 15(6) of the Tamil Nadu Marine Fishing Regulation Rules, 2020, which provide for specified channels for the transit of fishing vessels
- B. Rule 17(7) of the Tamil Nadu Marine Fishing Regulation Rules, 2020, which imposes a permanent ban on all mechanised fishing in the State's waters
- C. The Sustainable Harnessing of Fisheries in the Exclusive Economic Zone Rules, 2025, which vest exclusive authority over transit corridors in the Central Government
- D. Entry 21 of the State List of the Seventh Schedule, which confers on coastal States exclusive jurisdiction over fisheries in all Indian waters
Q4. Consider the following statements comparing the Supreme Court's earlier and latest orders on purse seine fishing off Tamil Nadu:
1. In February 2023 the Court had allowed purse seine fishing beyond Tamil Nadu's territorial waters on a conditional basis, limited to two days a week and subject to vessel tracking.
2. The order of September 2026 directs Tamil Nadu to frame rules for a 'specified channel' under Rules 15(5) and 15(6) of the Tamil Nadu Marine Fishing Regulation Rules, 2020.
3. The 2026 order lifts the prohibition on purse seine fishing within Tamil Nadu's territorial waters contained in Rule 17(7) of the 2020 Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- In February 2023 the Court had allowed purse seine fishing beyond Tamil Nadu's territorial waters on a conditional basis, limited to two days a week and subject to vessel tracking.
- The order of September 2026 directs Tamil Nadu to frame rules for a 'specified channel' under Rules 15(5) and 15(6) of the Tamil Nadu Marine Fishing Regulation Rules, 2020.
- The 2026 order lifts the prohibition on purse seine fishing within Tamil Nadu's territorial waters contained in Rule 17(7) of the 2020 Rules.
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q5. The wrestler's disqualification from the women's 50kg event at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games, following the second-day morning weigh-in, was tested in appeal before which forum, and on what reasoning was the disqualification allowed to stand?
- A. The Disciplinary Commission of the International Olympic Committee, which held that no tolerance margin whatsoever is admissible at a second-day weigh-in
- B. The Court of Arbitration for Sport, which held that the onus of remaining within the weight limit rests on the athlete, even while describing the consequence of failing that weigh-in as draconian
- C. The Appeals Tribunal of United World Wrestling, which held that the second-day weigh-in may be dispensed with only in the case of athletes who have already qualified for the final
- D. The Delhi High Court, which held that the choice of the weight category in which to compete was the athlete's own and therefore not open to judicial review
Q6. The post-pregnancy return-to-play framework announced by the International Cricket Council in 2026 is structured around six sequential stages, popularly called the 'six Rs'. Which one of the following correctly names those six stages?
- A. Recover, Reassure, Rebuild, Re-enter, Reward and Review
- B. Rest, Rehabilitate, Reassess, Reintegrate, Race and Retain
- C. Readiness, Recovery, Referral, Rescheduling, Ranking and Return
- D. Ready, Review, Restore, Recondition, Return and Refine
Q7. On 1 September 2026, the Delhi High Court issued notice on the wrestler's plea seeking a structured framework for women athletes returning to competition after maternity. On how many respondents was notice issued in that plea?
- A. Two
- B. Three
- C. Four
- D. Five
Q8. The magnitude-5.2 signal registered by the United States Geological Survey at the time of the August 2026 Rasuwa disaster is best understood as which one of the following?
- A. A tectonic rupture along the Main Central Thrust which, in turn, dislodged the ice mass from the slope above
- B. An aftershock of the 2015 earthquake, which alone had destabilised every slope in the surrounding catchment
- C. The seismic signature produced by the mass movement of ice and rock itself, rather than by any tectonic event
- D. Ground shaking generated entirely by the sudden collapse of the debris barrier obstructing the Lhende Khola
Q9. In the assessment of damage from the Bhote Koshi–Trishuli flash flood of August 2026, how many motorable bridges were reported destroyed?
Q10. With reference to the petition against the Marathi-language condition for commercial passenger-vehicle permits decided by the Bombay High Court, consider the following:
1. It was filed by four drivers attached to an app-based cab aggregator.
2. The Court held the amended State rules to be ultra vires the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and set them aside.
3. The State told the Court that all auto-rickshaw, taxi and cab drivers would be given one year to acquire working knowledge of Marathi.
4. The Court permanently restrained the transport department from taking any action whatsoever against non-compliant drivers.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- It was filed by four drivers attached to an app-based cab aggregator.
- The Court held the amended State rules to be ultra vires the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and set them aside.
- The State told the Court that all auto-rickshaw, taxi and cab drivers would be given one year to acquire working knowledge of Marathi.
- The Court permanently restrained the transport department from taking any action whatsoever against non-compliant drivers.
- A. 1 and 3
- B. 2 and 4
- C. 1, 3 and 4
- D. 2 and 3 only
Q11. The Division Bench of the Bombay High Court that disposed of the petition against the Marathi-language condition for commercial drivers was presided over by which one of the following?
- A. Justice Gautam Ankhad
- B. Chief Justice Alok Aradhe
- C. Acting Chief Justice Ravindra Ghuge
- D. Justice Devendra Kumar Upadhyaya
Q12. With reference to the demands pressed by the Andhra Pradesh Junior Doctors' Association during its August 2026 agitation, consider the following:
1. A 30% hike in stipends, sought with effect from January 2026.
2. Withdrawal of the proposal to raise the retirement age of senior government doctors from 62 to 65 years.
3. Recruitment of MSc and PhD candidates as assistant professors strictly in accordance with National Medical Commission norms.
4. Extension of the District Residency Programme posting for postgraduate students from three months to six months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A 30% hike in stipends, sought with effect from January 2026.
- Withdrawal of the proposal to raise the retirement age of senior government doctors from 62 to 65 years.
- Recruitment of MSc and PhD candidates as assistant professors strictly in accordance with National Medical Commission norms.
- Extension of the District Residency Programme posting for postgraduate students from three months to six months.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3 only
- C. 2, 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Q13. Consider the following statements about the 2026 agitation by junior doctors in Andhra Pradesh:
1. In Phase II (12-15 August 2026) emergency services were completely boycotted, whereas the withdrawal of non-emergency services began only on 17 August 2026.
2. The agitation was called off on 25 August 2026 after sixteen days, and doctors resumed duty from 26 August 2026.
3. The association leading the agitation represented about 9,000 doctors across 19 government medical colleges in the State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- In Phase II (12-15 August 2026) emergency services were completely boycotted, whereas the withdrawal of non-emergency services began only on 17 August 2026.
- The agitation was called off on 25 August 2026 after sixteen days, and doctors resumed duty from 26 August 2026.
- The association leading the agitation represented about 9,000 doctors across 19 government medical colleges in the State.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q14. India was placed 151st, an improvement from 159th the previous year, in the most recent edition of the World Press Freedom Index. Which one of the following correctly describes what this Index is?
- A. An annual ranking of 180 countries and territories compiled by Reporters Without Borders
- B. A biennial ranking of United Nations member States compiled by UNESCO for its World Trends report
- C. An annual ranking of media plurality compiled by the International Federation of Journalists for its member unions
- D. A periodic ranking of internet and media freedom compiled by the International Telecommunication Union
Q15. In early 2021, First Information Reports were registered over tweets concerning the violence during the farmers' tractor rally in Delhi, naming a sitting Member of Parliament along with a group of journalists. How many journalists were named in those First Information Reports?
- A. Four
- B. Five
- C. Six
- D. Eight
Q16. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's August 2026 interim order in the matter of journalist Abhishek Upadhyay:
1. The order was passed by a three-judge Bench of the Supreme Court.
2. The Commissioner of Police, Ghaziabad, was directed to file a compliance report before the next date of hearing.
3. While barring coercive action, the Court simultaneously quashed the First Information Report and transferred the investigation to the Central Bureau of Investigation.
4. Counsel for the petitioner submitted before the Court that he was seeking only a fair investigation and not quashing of the First Information Report at that stage.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- The order was passed by a three-judge Bench of the Supreme Court.
- The Commissioner of Police, Ghaziabad, was directed to file a compliance report before the next date of hearing.
- While barring coercive action, the Court simultaneously quashed the First Information Report and transferred the investigation to the Central Bureau of Investigation.
- Counsel for the petitioner submitted before the Court that he was seeking only a fair investigation and not quashing of the First Information Report at that stage.
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 2 and 4 only
- C. 3 only
- D. 3 and 4 only
Q17. With reference to the Supreme Court's 2026 interim order in favour of journalist Abhishek Upadhyay and the earlier 2024 round of litigation involving the same journalist, consider the following statements:
1. In the earlier 2024 proceedings the Supreme Court had granted the same journalist protection from arrest and observed that criminal cases should not be instituted merely because journalistic writing is perceived as criticism of the government.
2. The First Information Report that led to the 2026 interim order was registered by the Uttar Pradesh Police over an alleged road-rage incident in Ghaziabad and invoked provisions of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act.
3. Unlike the 2024 round, the protection granted in 2026 was confined strictly to the First Information Report already registered and did not extend to any fresh First Information Report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- In the earlier 2024 proceedings the Supreme Court had granted the same journalist protection from arrest and observed that criminal cases should not be instituted merely because journalistic writing is perceived as criticism of the government.
- The First Information Report that led to the 2026 interim order was registered by the Uttar Pradesh Police over an alleged road-rage incident in Ghaziabad and invoked provisions of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act.
- Unlike the 2024 round, the protection granted in 2026 was confined strictly to the First Information Report already registered and did not extend to any fresh First Information Report.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q18. With reference to the recruitment examinations at the centre of the 2026 Jharkhand agitation, which one of the following statements is correct?
- A. The Combined Graduate Level examination is conducted by the Jharkhand Staff Selection Commission, while the Civil Services examination that fills posts such as Deputy Collector is conducted by the Jharkhand Public Service Commission
- B. Both the Combined Graduate Level examination and the Civil Services examination for posts such as Deputy Collector are conducted by the Jharkhand Public Service Commission, the Staff Selection Commission being confined to Group D posts
- C. The Combined Graduate Level examination is conducted by the Jharkhand Public Service Commission, while appointments of food safety officers are made directly by the Jharkhand High Court on the basis of a separate merit list
- D. Both examinations are conducted by the Jharkhand Staff Selection Commission, the Jharkhand Public Service Commission functioning only as the appellate authority for examination grievances
Q19. In August 2026, responding to the agitation in Ranchi over alleged irregularities in state recruitment examinations, the Government of Jharkhand issued notifications dealing with 44 examinations conducted since 2014. How many of these examinations were cancelled outright, the remainder being referred for investigation?
Q20. Consider the following statements regarding the dharna held by the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha at the Parliament Street police station in August 2026:
1. It was held to demand registration of an FIR over pellet injuries suffered by Sahil Lochab at a students' protest against alleged irregularities in a national entrance examination.
2. Before going to the Parliament Street police station, the Leader of the Opposition had first approached the Mandir Marg police station along with the injured youth.
3. It followed a written complaint given by the injured youth on 14 August 2026, on which no FIR had been registered.
4. The police force manning the station where the dharna was held is administratively controlled entirely by the Government of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correctly identified?
- It was held to demand registration of an FIR over pellet injuries suffered by Sahil Lochab at a students' protest against alleged irregularities in a national entrance examination.
- Before going to the Parliament Street police station, the Leader of the Opposition had first approached the Mandir Marg police station along with the injured youth.
- It followed a written complaint given by the injured youth on 14 August 2026, on which no FIR had been registered.
- The police force manning the station where the dharna was held is administratively controlled entirely by the Government of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
- A. 1 and 4 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3 only
- C. 2, 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Q21. Consider the following statements about the NEET-UG 2026 paper-leak episode:
1. The examination conducted on 3 May 2026 was cancelled and a re-examination was announced for 21 June 2026.
2. The Central Bureau of Investigation arrested nine accused from places including Delhi, Jaipur, Gurugram, Nashik, Pune and Ahilyanagar.
3. Three subject experts appointed by the National Testing Agency, in Botany, Chemistry and Physics, were alleged to have been part of the conspiracy.
4. Following the leak, the Union Education Minister announced that all examinations conducted by the National Testing Agency, without exception, would move to computer-based mode from 2027.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The examination conducted on 3 May 2026 was cancelled and a re-examination was announced for 21 June 2026.
- The Central Bureau of Investigation arrested nine accused from places including Delhi, Jaipur, Gurugram, Nashik, Pune and Ahilyanagar.
- Three subject experts appointed by the National Testing Agency, in Botany, Chemistry and Physics, were alleged to have been part of the conspiracy.
- Following the leak, the Union Education Minister announced that all examinations conducted by the National Testing Agency, without exception, would move to computer-based mode from 2027.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 3 only
- D. 1 and 4 only
Q22. In its investigation into the NEET-UG 2026 paper leak, the CBI identified one individual as the principal source, or 'kingpin', of the leak. That person was:
- A. Prahlad Vithalrao Kulkarni, a Chemistry expert with access to the papers through the NTA examination process
- B. Manisha Gurunath Mandhare, a Botany expert with access to the papers through the NTA examination process
- C. Manisha Sanjay Havaldar, a Physics expert with access to the papers through the NTA examination process
- D. A Biology paper-setter deputed by the CBSE, which conducted such entrance tests before the NTA was created in 2017
Q23. In the Supreme Court's 2026 proceedings on the student protests, the relief contemplated under Article 142 — the 'quashing' of the FIRs — would mean which one of the following?
- A. A permanent bar on the registration of any fresh first information report against any student anywhere in India
- B. A blanket amnesty covering every person present at the protest sites, including those with serious criminal antecedents
- C. Termination of the criminal proceedings arising from those FIRs, without any trial verdict on guilt or innocence
- D. An acquittal after trial which operates as a conclusive finding of innocence binding on every court in the country
Q24. In August 2026, while hearing petitions concerning FIRs against student protesters, the Supreme Court decided to entrust the fact-finding into allegations of excessive police force and of assault and online harassment of women protesters to which one of the following?
- A. A Special Investigation Team headed by a serving Joint Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation
- B. A three-member committee consisting of a former Supreme Court judge, a former High Court Chief Justice and a senior retired police officer
- C. The National Human Rights Commission, acting through a statutory inquiry under its parent enactment
- D. A commission of inquiry appointed by the Union Home Ministry under the Commissions of Inquiry Act, 1952
Q25. Consider the following statements regarding the two weapons discharged during the Siwan protest incident, as set out in the Bihar Police affidavit before the Supreme Court:
1. The constable who found himself surrounded by the crowd fired four rounds from an AK-47 into the air, and no injuries resulted from those rounds.
2. The three protesters who sustained minor firearm injuries were struck by rounds from the AK-47 rather than from the 9 mm pistol discharged by the other officer.
3. Bihar Police itself characterised the AK-47 as a platoon-level weapon meant for special operations rather than for routine law-and-order duty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The constable who found himself surrounded by the crowd fired four rounds from an AK-47 into the air, and no injuries resulted from those rounds.
- The three protesters who sustained minor firearm injuries were struck by rounds from the AK-47 rather than from the 9 mm pistol discharged by the other officer.
- Bihar Police itself characterised the AK-47 as a platoon-level weapon meant for special operations rather than for routine law-and-order duty.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q26. While shielding student protesters from coercive action in 2026, the Supreme Court carved out an exception for persons with 'criminal antecedents'. On the Court's own subsequent clarification, that expression was confined to which category of persons?
- A. Those shown to be involved in offences of a grave and heinous character
- B. Those named in any first information report registered in the course of the protests themselves
- C. Those against whom a first information report of any description was pending before the protests began
- D. Those previously convicted by a competent criminal court of an offence of any description
Q27. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's 2024 decision on the NEET-UG paper leak:
1. The Court held that the material on record was not indicative of a systemic leak of the question paper.
2. The Court directed that the entire examination be cancelled and that every candidate without exception sit a fresh test.
3. The Bench that decided the matter was headed by the then Chief Justice of India, D.Y. Chandrachud.
4. In arriving at its conclusion the Court relied, among other material, on data furnished by the National Testing Agency and on a report of IIT Madras.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The Court held that the material on record was not indicative of a systemic leak of the question paper.
- The Court directed that the entire examination be cancelled and that every candidate without exception sit a fresh test.
- The Bench that decided the matter was headed by the then Chief Justice of India, D.Y. Chandrachud.
- In arriving at its conclusion the Court relied, among other material, on data furnished by the National Testing Agency and on a report of IIT Madras.
- A. 1, 3 and 4 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2, 3 and 4 only
- D. 1 and 4 only
Q28. The NEET-UG examination whose conduct was challenged before the Supreme Court in 2024 was held simultaneously across how many cities?
- A. 371
- B. 571
- C. 1,571
- D. 4,750
Q29. Consider the following statements about India's recent performance at the Olympic and Paralympic Games:
1. India won 7 medals at the Tokyo 2020 Olympic Games with a contingent of 119 athletes, improving on 2 medals won at Rio 2016.
2. India's tally of 6 medals at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games comprised one silver and five bronze medals.
3. Neeraj Chopra won India's first Olympic gold medal in athletics at Tokyo 2020 and retained the title with a gold medal at Paris 2024.
4. At the Paris 2024 Paralympic Games India won 29 medals, including 7 gold medals, from a contingent of 84 athletes.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- India won 7 medals at the Tokyo 2020 Olympic Games with a contingent of 119 athletes, improving on 2 medals won at Rio 2016.
- India's tally of 6 medals at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games comprised one silver and five bronze medals.
- Neeraj Chopra won India's first Olympic gold medal in athletics at Tokyo 2020 and retained the title with a gold medal at Paris 2024.
- At the Paris 2024 Paralympic Games India won 29 medals, including 7 gold medals, from a contingent of 84 athletes.
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 2, 3 and 4 only
- C. 1, 2 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q30. Under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, the expression 'public examination' extends to which one of the following sets of examinations?
- A. Only entrance tests for professional and higher-education courses conducted by the National Testing Agency, such as NEET, JEE and CUET
- B. Examinations of the Union Public Service Commission, Staff Selection Commission, Railways and banking recruitment bodies, and computer-based tests of the National Testing Agency
- C. Only recruitment examinations conducted by Union-level bodies such as the Union Public Service Commission and the Staff Selection Commission, excluding all entrance tests
- D. Examinations conducted by the Union as well as by all State public service commissions and State secondary school examination boards