Defence & Internal Security MCQs for UPSC Prelims

Q1. Consider the following assertion: 'The India–Australia Mutual Logistics Support Agreement makes it easier for the two armies to scale up the complexity of exercises such as AUSTRAHIND.' Which of the statements given below support/supports the above assertion?

  1. The agreement lets each side's forces use the other's bases for repair and replenishment of supplies.
  2. The agreement was signed at the same 2020 summit at which the two countries elevated their ties to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.
  3. AUSTRAHIND is held alternately in India and Australia, so in every edition one contingent operates far from its home bases.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q2. Under the 'One Nation, One Time' initiative, Indian Standard Time (IST) is being disseminated from national timescales through Legal Metrology laboratories, with the participation of CSIR-NPL and ISRO. Consider the following statements about the likely consequences: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. It reduces the exposure of networks such as telecom, power and banking to disruption or spoofing of foreign satellite navigation signals.
  2. It removes the need for any ground-based atomic timescale, since NavIC satellites can keep IST independently of a ground reference.
  3. It allows time stamps used in commercial and financial transactions to be traced to a national standard.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 only

Q3. Suppose a District Magistrate keeps a central public square closed to all assemblies for several months by issuing a fresh prohibitory order under Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 each time the previous order lapses. Going by the Supreme Court's 2020 reasoning on the predecessor provision, Section 144 of the CrPC, how would this practice most likely be viewed?

  • A. As valid in every case, since each fresh order is a new exercise of power that cures earlier defects
  • B. As valid only with legislative approval, since prolonged restrictions need the sanction of the State Legislature
  • C. As an abuse of the power, since repeated orders turn an urgent preventive measure into a standing restriction
  • D. As beyond judicial review, since the power is executive and lies outside the writ jurisdiction of courts

Q4. Consider the following assertion: Versatile multi-role vessels strengthen India's ability to respond to non-traditional maritime threats in the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

  1. Non-traditional threats such as natural disasters and illegal activity at sea mostly call for surveillance, patrol and relief tasks rather than high-intensity combat capability.
  2. A vessel equipped for humanitarian assistance and disaster relief can be sent quickly to help littoral states after cyclones or other disasters.
  3. Multi-role vessels are designed primarily to carry long-range strike missiles for deterrence against a peer navy.
  4. Maritime surveillance and offshore patrolling improve maritime domain awareness, which helps detect illegal fishing and trafficking early.
  • A. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 2 and 4 only

Q5. Consider the following challenges at sea: Which of the above are generally classified as non-traditional maritime security threats?

  1. Illegal, unreported and unregulated fishing
  2. A naval blockade imposed by the fleet of a hostile state
  3. Cyclones and tsunamis that require humanitarian assistance and disaster relief
  4. Trafficking of narcotics by sea
  • A. 1 and 4 only
  • B. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q6. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. A naval vessel can remain afloat for well over a year before it is commissioned into the Navy.
  2. After a vessel is launched, its outfitting, harbour trials and sea trials have to be completed before it is delivered and commissioned.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q7. With reference to the stages in the construction of a naval warship, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Launching marks the formal induction of a vessel into the Navy, after which it carries the 'INS' prefix.
  2. At launch the hull first enters the water, and outfitting and trials of the vessel continue after that.
  3. Keel laying marks the formal start of construction of the vessel at the shipyard.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q8. With reference to the 'Buy (Indian-IDDM)' category under the Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. DAP 2020 lowered the minimum indigenous content required in this category compared with DPP 2016, to widen the vendor base.
  2. A product designed abroad and only manufactured in India under licence does not, for that reason alone, meet this category's design criterion.
  3. This category has the highest priority among the categories for capital acquisition.
  • A. 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. Section 163 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 carries forward the power earlier contained in Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. With reference to this power, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. It is exercised by an executive magistrate, such as a District Magistrate or a Sub-divisional Magistrate, and not by a judicial magistrate.
  2. It is a punitive power, used to penalise persons after a disturbance has occurred, rather than a preventive one.
  3. An order under it must be in writing and must state the material facts of the case.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q10. With reference to the Defence Ministers' Meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. It is a sectoral ministerial track separate from the Council of Heads of Government, whose focus is trade, economic cooperation and the budget.
  2. It is hosted by the member state holding the SCO chairmanship, which is why India hosted it in the year India chaired the SCO.
  3. The joint document of this meeting is the instrument through which the SCO's annual budget is adopted.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q11. Consider the following assertion: The October 2026 contracts for the GSAT-7C satellite and the Varunastra torpedo are an example of self-reliance in defence procurement. Which of the statements given above support/supports the assertion?

  1. The combined value of the two contracts exceeds ₹4,000 crore.
  2. Both systems are described as designed, developed and manufactured within India.
  3. Both contracts were placed with Indian public-sector companies rather than with foreign suppliers.
  • A. 2 and 3 only
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q12. With reference to the Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP) 2020, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Buy (Indian-IDDM) is given the highest priority among the capital acquisition categories.
  2. Compared with DPP 2016, DAP 2020 lowered the minimum indigenous content required under Buy (Indian-IDDM) in order to widen the vendor base.
  3. The Buy (Indian-IDDM) category is reserved for Indian vendors, so a foreign manufacturer cannot bid in it directly.
  4. In the order of preference, Buy (Indian) ranks above Buy and Make (Indian).
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q13. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. The SMART system extends the Indian Navy's anti-submarine reach well beyond the range of a conventional torpedo.
  2. In SMART, a missile carries the torpedo through the air to the vicinity of the target and releases it there, after which the torpedo continues the attack underwater.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q14. With reference to torpedoes used in anti-submarine warfare, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Varunastra, being a heavy-weight torpedo, is designed primarily to be air-dropped from maritime patrol aircraft and helicopters.
  2. Torpedoes rely on acoustic homing because electromagnetic waves travel through seawater with less attenuation than sound waves do.
  3. In a missile-assisted torpedo delivery system such as SMART, the payload carried by the missile is a light-weight torpedo.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 only

Q15. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. The GSAT-7 satellite was designed to provide communication capabilities over a wide oceanic region as well as the Indian landmass, which suits it to naval operations.
  2. GSAT-7 was placed in a low earth orbit so that a single satellite could provide continuous coverage over the Indian Ocean.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q16. Dedicated military communication satellites such as those of the GSAT-7 series are placed in geostationary orbit. With reference to such satellites, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A satellite in geostationary orbit keeps a fixed position relative to a point on the Earth's surface, so fixed ground antennas need not track it across the sky.
  2. Because of its much higher altitude, a geostationary satellite introduces a longer signal delay than a satellite in low earth orbit does.
  3. A single geostationary satellite provides reliable coverage over the polar regions as well as over the equatorial belt.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 only

Q17. Consider the following facts: India became a member of the Missile Technology Control Regime in June 2016, the Wassenaar Arrangement in December 2017 and the Australia Group in January 2018. India's national control list (SCOMET) is updated from time to time to harmonise it with the guidelines of these regimes and the Chemical Weapons Convention. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?

  1. India's national control list must cover missile-related items, conventional arms and dual-use goods, and chemical-biological items.
  2. Admission to the Wassenaar Arrangement was a precondition for India's later admission to the Australia Group.
  3. After harmonisation, individual SCOMET licensing decisions require the prior approval of the other participants of these regimes.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q18. With reference to India's SCOMET (Special Chemicals, Organisms, Materials, Equipment and Technologies) control list, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Listing an item on SCOMET subjects its export to licensing scrutiny, and pending licence applications can be examined by an inter-ministerial body.
  2. Because the list targets proliferation risks, its controls apply only to exports bound for countries under UN Security Council sanctions.
  3. The list is revised from time to time to harmonise it with the guidelines of multilateral export control regimes and with a treaty banning chemical weapons.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q19. With reference to the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025, which consolidated the earlier passport-entry, registration, foreigners and carriers' liability laws, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. In keeping with the Union List entry on admission into and expulsion from India, the power to notify designated immigration posts for entry and exit lies with the Central Government.
  2. Duties on educational and medical institutions to report the foreigners they admit move part of the detection of foreigners from the border to institutions inside the country.
  3. Since the law concerns foreigners, a Union subject, arrest without warrant for offences under it can be made only by immigration officers and not by State police officers.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q20. With reference to the Combined Maritime Forces (CMF), consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Its headquarters is in Bahrain, which also hosts the US Navy's Fifth Fleet.
  2. Its operations are authorised by UN Security Council resolutions, in the same way as UN peacekeeping missions.
  3. Command of its individual task forces is held by different member navies over time, rather than permanently by the lead nation.
  4. Membership is restricted to States bordering the Persian Gulf.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Q21. With reference to the control of fishing vessels operating on the high seas, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Under UNCLOS, a ship on the high seas is, save in exceptional cases expressly provided for by treaty, subject to the exclusive jurisdiction of its flag State.
  2. Under the UN Fish Stocks Agreement, in a high-seas area covered by a regional fisheries management organisation, a member State's authorised inspectors may board and inspect fishing vessels flagged to another State Party.
  3. The FAO Port State Measures Agreement seeks to stop vessels engaged in illegal, unreported and unregulated fishing from using ports and landing their catches.
  • A. 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q22. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Shifting a warship order from a Defence PSU yard to a private yard would not, by itself, remove the main causes of delay that the CAG identified in Indian warship construction.
  2. The CAG attributed those delays mainly to changes in weapon and sensor fit during construction, late supply of equipment and delayed design freeze.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q23. A person convicted and sentenced by a court in Country X escapes before serving the sentence and is later found living freely in Country Y. Country X wants him handed over so that he serves his punishment in X. Under which one of the following arrangements would Country X ordinarily seek this?

  • A. An agreement on the transfer of sentenced persons
  • B. An extradition treaty between the two countries
  • C. A convention on mutual legal assistance in criminal matters
  • D. A convention on combating terrorism and organised crime

Q24. With reference to the legal instruments that BIMSTEC has signed or is negotiating for cooperation in criminal matters, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A mutual legal assistance convention enables a member to obtain help, such as service of summons and judicial documents, on persons located in another member state.
  2. A transfer-of-sentenced-persons convention is meant to allow an accused person to be tried in the home country rather than where the offence occurred.
  3. Serving a foreign non-bailable arrest warrant so as to bring a person back to the requesting country is handled as extradition rather than as routine mutual legal assistance.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1 only

Q25. At the 2026 BIMSTEC Home Ministers' meeting it was noted that drug money funds terrorism, that precursor chemicals are being diverted to illicit drug manufacture, and that drug transactions are increasingly carried out on the dark web. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?

  1. A strategy confined to seizing finished narcotics at land borders would leave parts of the drug supply chain unaddressed.
  2. Drug trafficking in the region is now financed mainly by state actors rather than by criminal networks.
  3. Dark-web transactions have replaced physical trafficking routes as the main channel of drug supply in the region.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q26. The 2026 BIMSTEC Home Ministers' meeting approved an MoU on capacity building to combat money laundering and terror financing. With reference to the anti-money-laundering framework that applies to India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, banks and other reporting entities must verify the identity of their clients and furnish prescribed transaction information to FIU-IND.
  2. Countries' compliance with FATF standards is assessed through mutual evaluations, after which a country may be placed under regular or enhanced follow-up.
  3. FIU-IND receives and analyses suspicious transaction reports and itself prosecutes the resulting money-laundering cases before Special Courts.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q27. The BIMSTEC Home Ministers called for mutual legal assistance and the repatriation of fugitive criminals among member states. In this context, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Since extradition from India rests on the Extradition Act, 1962, India cannot surrender a fugitive to a state with which it has no bilateral extradition treaty.
  2. A request for mutual legal assistance in criminal matters may seek evidence or the service of judicial documents abroad without asking for the surrender of any person.
  3. Dual criminality requires that the conduct for which a fugitive's surrender is sought be an offence under the laws of both the requesting and the requested state.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q28. Consider the following facts: India's defence exports reached a record ₹23,622 crore in 2024-25, of which ₹15,233 crore came from the private sector and ₹8,389 crore from DPSUs. India was the world's second-largest arms importer in 2020–2024. The government reports Tejas as being in export discussions, with no signed sale. HAL's Tejas Mk1A output is committed to the IAF's 97-aircraft order, with deliveries starting in 2027-28 and running over six years. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above facts?

  1. Private firms accounted for more than three-fifths of India's defence exports in 2024-25.
  2. HAL can promise early Tejas deliveries to a foreign buyer without affecting the IAF's own order.
  3. India's defence-industrial base has become self-sufficient enough to end its dependence on arms imports.
  4. Record export earnings do not by themselves show that India has become an exporter of fighter aircraft.
  • A. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q29. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. A large share of salaries and pensions in the defence budget limits the funds available for acquiring new fighter aircraft.
  2. Salaries and pensions are booked as capital outlay because they sustain the fighting capacity of the armed forces.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q30. With reference to the powers to act against piracy under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A State may seize a pirate ship on the high seas even if the ship, its crew and its victims have no connection with that State.
  2. A merchant ship that has been attacked by pirates is itself entitled under UNCLOS to seize the pirate ship on account of piracy.
  3. The penalties to be imposed on persons arrested for piracy may be decided by the courts of the State that carried out the seizure.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 3 only