Environment MCQs for UPSC Prelims

Q1. The Green Climate Fund, with its Secretariat at Songdo in the Republic of Korea, is governed by a Board of country representatives numbering how many?

• A. 12 members, drawn equally from developed and developing countries
• B. 24 members, drawn equally from developed and developing countries
• C. 32 members, with a majority reserved for developing countries
• D. 48 members, one nominated by each contributing country

Q2. Among the following components of the international climate regime, which one came into existence earliest?

• A. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change, set up jointly by UNEP and the World Meteorological Organization
• B. The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, adopted at the Earth Summit held at Rio de Janeiro
• C. The Kyoto Protocol, adopted as a protocol to the parent climate change convention
• D. The Green Climate Fund, created by the parties to the convention under the Cancun Agreements

Q3. With reference to the disengagement of the United States from international climate arrangements, consider the following: 1. It notified the UN Secretary-General of withdrawal from the Paris Agreement in January 2025, and that withdrawal took effect in January 2026. 2. An earlier withdrawal by it from the Paris Agreement had taken effect in November 2020, and it accepted the Agreement again in February 2021. 3. The announcement of its withdrawal from the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change itself came in January 2026. 4. Its withdrawal from the Paris Agreement became effective three months after the depositary received the notification. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. It notified the UN Secretary-General of withdrawal from the Paris Agreement in January 2025, and that withdrawal took effect in January 2026.
2. An earlier withdrawal by it from the Paris Agreement had taken effect in November 2020, and it accepted the Agreement again in February 2021.
3. The announcement of its withdrawal from the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change itself came in January 2026.
4. Its withdrawal from the Paris Agreement became effective three months after the depositary received the notification.

• A. 1 and 3
• B. 2 only
• C. 4 only
• D. 2 and 4

Q4. The Global Tipping Points Report 2025, drawing on 160 scientists from 23 countries, was produced under the leadership of researchers based at which institution?

• A. The Global Systems Institute at the University of Exeter, United Kingdom
• B. The Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, Germany
• C. The Stockholm Resilience Centre at Stockholm University, Sweden
• D. The Grantham Research Institute at the London School of Economics, United Kingdom

Q5. With reference to the Global Tipping Points Report 2025, consider the following: 1. Warm-water coral reefs are the first system assessed to have crossed their thermal tipping point, with die-off affecting more than 84 per cent of reefs across 82 countries. 2. Dieback of the Amazon rainforest and collapse of the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation are assessed as possible below 2°C of warming. 3. Land permafrost and the sub-polar gyre are placed at thresholds of around 1.5°C. 4. Mountain glaciers and boreal forests are assessed as having already tipped, ahead of coral reefs. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

1. Warm-water coral reefs are the first system assessed to have crossed their thermal tipping point, with die-off affecting more than 84 per cent of reefs across 82 countries.
2. Dieback of the Amazon rainforest and collapse of the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation are assessed as possible below 2°C of warming.
3. Land permafrost and the sub-polar gyre are placed at thresholds of around 1.5°C.
4. Mountain glaciers and boreal forests are assessed as having already tipped, ahead of coral reefs.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 1, 2 and 3
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 3 and 4

Q6. In UNEP's 'Limiting Overshoot' assessment, the 'overshoot, peak and decline' pathway is best described as which one of the following?

• A. Immediate and sustained cuts to greenhouse gases including methane on the road to net zero, followed by sustained net-negative emissions that bring temperatures back down
• B. Permitting emissions to peak by 2035 and decline thereafter, in a manner that keeps warming below the 1.5°C mark at all times without recourse to carbon removals
• C. Stabilising warming at whatever peak level is reached and adapting to it permanently, with removals used only to offset residual aviation and shipping emissions
• D. Deploying solar radiation management to cap the peak, with emissions thereafter declining at rates determined solely by each Party's own contribution

Q7. The UNEP Emissions Gap Report titled 'Off Target', assessed in Nairobi in November 2025, was which edition in that report series?

• A. The 10th edition
• B. The 13th edition
• C. The 16th edition
• D. The 21st edition

Q8. The COP30 outcome established a new work programme to scrutinise whether global investment and funding flows are consistent with the Paris Agreement's objectives. This work programme is anchored in which provision of the Agreement?

• A. Article 6, dealing with voluntary cooperative approaches and market mechanisms
• B. Article 8, dealing with loss and damage associated with adverse climate impacts
• C. Article 9, dealing with the provision of resources by developed country Parties
• D. Article 14, dealing with the periodic global stocktake of collective progress

Q9. With reference to the structure of the Paris Agreement, consider the following: 1. Every Party is required to prepare, communicate and maintain successive nationally determined contributions, which are to be communicated at five-yearly intervals. 2. Although adopted in December 2015, it entered into force in 2016, less than a year after its adoption. 3. It fixes uniform, legally binding quantified emission-reduction targets for developed country Parties, listed in an annex to the Agreement itself. 4. A Party may withdraw only after three years from the date the Agreement enters into force for it, and such withdrawal takes effect one year after the depositary receives the notification. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

1. Every Party is required to prepare, communicate and maintain successive nationally determined contributions, which are to be communicated at five-yearly intervals.
2. Although adopted in December 2015, it entered into force in 2016, less than a year after its adoption.
3. It fixes uniform, legally binding quantified emission-reduction targets for developed country Parties, listed in an annex to the Agreement itself.
4. A Party may withdraw only after three years from the date the Agreement enters into force for it, and such withdrawal takes effect one year after the depositary receives the notification.

• A. 1 and 3
• B. 2, 3 and 4
• C. 1, 2 and 4
• D. 1 and 4 only

Q10. Under the Paris Agreement, the foremost long-term temperature goal, as set out in Article 2.1(a), is expressed in which one of the following ways?

• A. Holding the rise in global average temperature to below 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels, treating 2°C as a permitted temporary ceiling
• B. Holding the rise in global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels, while pursuing efforts to limit it to 1.5°C
• C. Holding the rise in global average temperature to well below 2°C above 1990 levels, while pursuing efforts to limit it to 1.5°C
• D. Holding the rise in global average temperature to below 2°C above pre-industrial levels, the 1.5°C effort binding only on developed country Parties

Q11. Purse seine nets, which encircle a shoal and are then closed at the bottom by drawing in a purse line, are used almost exclusively to catch which one of the following categories of fish?

• A. Pelagic shoaling fish such as sardines, mackerels and tunas
• B. Demersal bottom-dwelling fish such as soles and threadfin breams
• C. Benthic shellfish such as crabs, lobsters and clams
• D. Anadromous fish ascending rivers from the sea to spawn

Q12. Consider the following statements on the regulation of purse seine fishing in and off Tamil Nadu: 1. Tamil Nadu has prohibited purse seine fishing within its territorial waters since 2000, and the prohibition was carried into Rule 17(7) of its Marine Fishing Regulation Rules, 2020. 2. The Central Rules of 2025 on sustainable harnessing of fisheries impose a total ban on purse seine fishing throughout India's exclusive economic zone. 3. Under the arrangement permitted by the Supreme Court in February 2023, purse seine fishing beyond Tamil Nadu's territorial waters was allowed only on Mondays and Thursdays. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Tamil Nadu has prohibited purse seine fishing within its territorial waters since 2000, and the prohibition was carried into Rule 17(7) of its Marine Fishing Regulation Rules, 2020.
2. The Central Rules of 2025 on sustainable harnessing of fisheries impose a total ban on purse seine fishing throughout India's exclusive economic zone.
3. Under the arrangement permitted by the Supreme Court in February 2023, purse seine fishing beyond Tamil Nadu's territorial waters was allowed only on Mondays and Thursdays.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q13. In the absence of a dedicated central statute governing data centres, the extraction of ground water for uses including data centre cooling is regulated and controlled through guidelines notified vide S.O. 3289(E) dated 24 September 2020, subsequently amended in March 2023. These guidelines were issued by which one of the following?

• A. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
• B. The Ministry of Jal Shakti
• C. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
• D. The Ministry of Earth Sciences

Q14. Consider the following statements comparing the technological response of the data centre industry to water and power intensity with the position taken by the Government on the same issue: 1. To minimise water usage, the industry adopts advanced cooling technologies such as direct-to-chip liquid cooling, adiabatic cooling and immersion cooling. 2. The industry deploys high density racks to support high-performance computing and artificial intelligence workloads, which further reduces power and water consumption. 3. The Government has stated that several formal concerns regarding water consumption in data centres have been received by it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. To minimise water usage, the industry adopts advanced cooling technologies such as direct-to-chip liquid cooling, adiabatic cooling and immersion cooling.
2. The industry deploys high density racks to support high-performance computing and artificial intelligence workloads, which further reduces power and water consumption.
3. The Government has stated that several formal concerns regarding water consumption in data centres have been received by it.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q15. Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, a certificate of ownership in respect of a captive wild animal in a person's lawful possession may be issued by which one of the following?

• A. The Animal Welfare Board of India, functioning under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960
• B. The State Board for Wild Life of the State in which the animal is kept
• C. The District Magistrate of the district in which the animal is kept
• D. The Chief Wild Life Warden of the State concerned

Q16. With reference to the legal framework governing captive elephants in India, consider the following: 1. The Captive Elephant (Transfer or Transport) Rules, 2024 were framed under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and apply to an elephant in respect of which an ownership certificate has been issued. 2. The Kerala Captive Elephants (Management and Maintenance) Rules, 2012 provide for the retirement of a captive elephant on its attaining 65 years of age. 3. Those Kerala Rules require the constitution of district-level committees ahead of festival seasons. 4. Cruelty towards a captive elephant is punishable exclusively under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 having no application to any animal held in captivity. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

1. The Captive Elephant (Transfer or Transport) Rules, 2024 were framed under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and apply to an elephant in respect of which an ownership certificate has been issued.
2. The Kerala Captive Elephants (Management and Maintenance) Rules, 2012 provide for the retirement of a captive elephant on its attaining 65 years of age.
3. Those Kerala Rules require the constitution of district-level committees ahead of festival seasons.
4. Cruelty towards a captive elephant is punishable exclusively under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 having no application to any animal held in captivity.

• A. 1 and 4
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1, 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 3 and 4

Q17. The proposed Hebbal–Central Silk Board tunnel road is reported to require approximately how many acres of Lalbagh land on a temporary basis during construction?

• A. Two
• B. Four
• C. Six
• D. Nine

Q18. The 2026 Karnataka Bill permitting alienation of a portion of park and garden land amends a parent State Act enacted in which year?

• A. 1963
• B. 1975
• C. 1976
• D. 1985

Q19. As reported in 2026, the amendment to Karnataka's 1975 law on government parks permits limited alienation of park land principally for which one of the following purposes?

• A. Commercial development undertaken to finance the upkeep and maintenance of parks
• B. Public infrastructure and utility projects taken up by public entities
• C. Housing for economically weaker sections within urban local body limits
• D. Rehabilitation of families displaced by irrigation and reservoir projects

Q20. Consider the following statements about the wildlife of Bannerghatta National Park as compared with other urban-fringe protected areas in India: 1. Roughly a hundred elephants use the landscape in and around the park. 2. A resident tiger presence in the park makes Bengaluru the only Indian city with tigers in its landscape. 3. Unlike elephants and leopards, gaur and dhole are absent from the park's faunal assemblage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Roughly a hundred elephants use the landscape in and around the park.
2. A resident tiger presence in the park makes Bengaluru the only Indian city with tigers in its landscape.
3. Unlike elephants and leopards, gaur and dhole are absent from the park's faunal assemblage.

• A. 1 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 2 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q21. Consider the following statements about Bannerghatta National Park: 1. It lies on the northern edge of the Mysore Elephant Reserve. 2. It facilitates elephant movement from the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary and the Hosur Forest Division of Tamil Nadu. 3. It serves as the watershed for streams including the Suvarnamukhi and the Antaragange Hole. 4. Its forest belt is uniformly more than five kilometres wide throughout, which insulates it from urban pressure. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. It lies on the northern edge of the Mysore Elephant Reserve.
2. It facilitates elephant movement from the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary and the Hosur Forest Division of Tamil Nadu.
3. It serves as the watershed for streams including the Suvarnamukhi and the Antaragange Hole.
4. Its forest belt is uniformly more than five kilometres wide throughout, which insulates it from urban pressure.

• A. 1 and 4
• B. 4 only
• C. 2 and 3
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q22. How many acres of agricultural land acquired for the Suryanagar 4th phase residential layout were set aside by the Karnataka High Court's Division Bench in August 2026?

• A. 968 acres
• B. 1,684 acres
• C. 2,938 acres
• D. 1,938 acres

Q23. In quashing the land acquisition for the Karnataka Housing Board's Suryanagar 4th phase layout in August 2026, what was the principal ground on which the Division Bench held the acquisition to be 'misconceived'?

• A. That no agricultural land anywhere in Karnataka may be acquired for housing without the individual consent of every landowner
• B. That the Karnataka Housing Board is wholly barred by its parent statute from developing layouts in Bengaluru Urban district
• C. That the project area falls within the park's proposed eco-sensitive zone and abuts elephant corridors
• D. That residential layouts within ten kilometres of any national park in India are permanently prohibited

Q24. The notification finally declaring an eco-sensitive zone around a national park, following the publication of a draft under the Environment (Protection) Rules, 1986, is issued by which one of the following?

• A. The State forest department, acting through the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State
• B. The National Board for Wildlife, on the recommendation of its Standing Committee
• C. The Central Pollution Control Board, constituted under the Water Act, 1974
• D. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Q25. Consider the following statements comparing the Supreme Court's 2022 direction on eco-sensitive zones with its subsequent modification: 1. The order of 3 June 2022 required every national park and wildlife sanctuary to have an eco-sensitive zone of at least one kilometre measured from its demarcated boundary. 2. In April 2023 the Court held that this one-kilometre mandate would not apply in cases where a draft or final eco-sensitive zone notification had already been issued. 3. The requirement that development activity within an eco-sensitive zone conform to the guidelines of 9 February 2011 flows from guidelines framed by the National Board for Wildlife. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The order of 3 June 2022 required every national park and wildlife sanctuary to have an eco-sensitive zone of at least one kilometre measured from its demarcated boundary.
2. In April 2023 the Court held that this one-kilometre mandate would not apply in cases where a draft or final eco-sensitive zone notification had already been issued.
3. The requirement that development activity within an eco-sensitive zone conform to the guidelines of 9 February 2011 flows from guidelines framed by the National Board for Wildlife.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the eco-sensitive zone of Bannerghatta National Park: 1. The draft notification of June 2016 demarcated an eco-sensitive zone of 268.96 sq km. 2. The 2016 draft provided for a buffer varying from 100 metres to 4.5 kilometres around the park boundary. 3. The final notification of March 2020 enlarged the eco-sensitive zone beyond the extent proposed in the 2016 draft. 4. The State Government's 2018 proposal capped the maximum buffer at three kilometres. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. The draft notification of June 2016 demarcated an eco-sensitive zone of 268.96 sq km.
2. The 2016 draft provided for a buffer varying from 100 metres to 4.5 kilometres around the park boundary.
3. The final notification of March 2020 enlarged the eco-sensitive zone beyond the extent proposed in the 2016 draft.
4. The State Government's 2018 proposal capped the maximum buffer at three kilometres.

• A. 1 and 2
• B. 3 only
• C. 3 and 4
• D. 2, 3 and 4

Q27. The 2018 proposal that capped the maximum buffer around Bannerghatta National Park at one kilometre and thereby shrank its proposed eco-sensitive zone to 168.84 sq km was made by which one of the following?

• A. The State Government of Karnataka
• B. The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
• C. The Supreme Court's Central Empowered Committee
• D. The Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife

Q28. The inventory that mapped and categorised more than 25,000 glacial lakes across five major river basins of the Hindu Kush Himalaya was brought out by which organisation, and in which year?

• A. The United Nations Environment Programme, in 2011
• B. The International Hydrological Programme of UNESCO, in 2022
• C. The South Asia Water Initiative of the World Bank, in 2015
• D. The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development, in 2018

Q29. With reference to the measures used to characterise bird communities in ecological studies, consider the following statements: 1. The Shannon index reflects both the number of species present and the evenness of their relative abundances. 2. Species richness is a count of the species present and takes no account of their relative abundances. 3. Functional richness, functional evenness, functional divergence and functional dispersion are used alongside taxonomic measures to describe bird community responses. 4. A rise in the Shannon index of a bird community indicates an increase in the total number of individual birds present. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

1. The Shannon index reflects both the number of species present and the evenness of their relative abundances.
2. Species richness is a count of the species present and takes no account of their relative abundances.
3. Functional richness, functional evenness, functional divergence and functional dispersion are used alongside taxonomic measures to describe bird community responses.
4. A rise in the Shannon index of a bird community indicates an increase in the total number of individual birds present.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2, 3 and 4
• C. 1, 2 and 3
• D. 1 and 4 only

Q30. Which one of the following is the principal component of biological diversity whose decline is the defining signature of biotic homogenization?

• A. Beta diversity, the compositional distinctiveness among communities
• B. Alpha diversity, since homogenization necessarily removes species from every local site
• C. Gamma diversity, since the regional species pool is invariably the first to collapse
• D. Phylogenetic diversity, which is unaffected by land-use change in all documented cases