Environment MCQs for UPSC Prelims — May 2026
Q1. The stipulation that coal-based thermal power plants located beyond 500 km from the pit-head must be supplied coal with ash content not exceeding 34% (on a quarterly average) is a requirement laid down by which one of the following?
- A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B. Ministry of Coal
- C. Ministry of Power
- D. Central Pollution Control Board only
Q2. With reference to the global conservation status of amphibians as reported in the Second Global Amphibian Assessment, consider the following statements:
1. Amphibians are the most threatened class of vertebrates.
2. Roughly 41% of amphibian species are assessed as being at risk of extinction.
3. Habitat loss and climate change are among the leading drivers of amphibian decline.
4. Amphibians are the least threatened vertebrate group globally.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Amphibians are the most threatened class of vertebrates.
- Roughly 41% of amphibian species are assessed as being at risk of extinction.
- Habitat loss and climate change are among the leading drivers of amphibian decline.
- Amphibians are the least threatened vertebrate group globally.
- A. 1, 2 and 3 only
- B. 1 and 4 only
- C. 2 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q3. In the Zoological Survey of India's annual 'Animal Discoveries' report, the expression 'species new to science' refers to which one of the following?
- A. A species formally described and named for the first time, not previously known to science anywhere
- B. A species recorded within India for the first time but already known to occur elsewhere in the world
- C. A species found only inside a legally notified protected area
- D. A species that is endemic exclusively to a single Indian state
Q4. Which Union ministry serves as the nodal ministry for biodiversity conservation and administers the scientific body that documents new faunal species from the Indo-Burma hotspot region?
- A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B. Ministry of Science and Technology
- C. Ministry of Earth Sciences
- D. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Q5. With reference to the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), consider the following statements:
1. It was established on 1 July 1916.
2. Its headquarters is located at Kolkata.
3. It operates through 16 regional centres across the country.
4. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- It was established on 1 July 1916.
- Its headquarters is located at Kolkata.
- It operates through 16 regional centres across the country.
- It is an attached office of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
- A. 1, 2 and 3 only
- B. 1 and 4 only
- C. 2, 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q6. The Zoological Survey of India, established in 1916, functions as the country's premier institution for which one of the following?
- A. Survey, exploration and documentation of India's faunal (animal) resources
- B. Survey and documentation of India's plant (floral) resources
- C. Mapping of India's forest cover and forest resources
- D. Survey of India's geological and mineral resources
Q7. The field survey in Kiphire district that led to the recording of the new cascade frog was carried out by which one of the following organisations?
- A. Zoological Survey of India
- B. Botanical Survey of India
- C. Wildlife Institute of India
- D. National Centre for Biological Sciences
Q8. As per the description of Amolops kamal, how many species of the genus Amolops have so far been reported from India?
Q9. In cascade frogs of the genus Amolops (to which the newly described Amolops kamal belongs), which one of the following is the principal larval adaptation that enables the tadpoles to survive in fast-flowing hill streams?
- A. A large ventral (abdominal) sucker used to cling to rocks
- B. A pair of parotoid poison glands behind the eyes
- C. An inflatable vocal sac for underwater calling
- D. Fully webbed forelimbs used as paddles
Q10. The 2025 analysis reporting that 35 of 36 Indian States/UTs are witnessing rising night-time temperatures is attributed to which organisation?
- A. Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW)
- B. India Meteorological Department (IMD)
- C. NITI Aayog
- D. The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)
Q11. Consider the following institutions named as collaborators in the Voluntary Certification Scheme for Incentivization of ABS (VCS-I-ABS):
1. National Biodiversity Authority
2. Quality Council of India
3. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India
4. World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) India
Which of the above is/are NOT correctly identified as a collaborating institution of the scheme?
- National Biodiversity Authority
- Quality Council of India
- United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India
- World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) India
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 4 only
- C. 3 and 4
- D. 2 only
Q12. The world's first dedicated Voluntary Certification Scheme for Incentivization of Access and Benefit Sharing (VCS-I-ABS) has been launched under which one of the following legislations?
- A. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
- B. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- C. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
- D. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
Q13. Under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, which is the single apex authority whose prior approval is required before intellectual property rights based on Indian biological resources are granted?
- A. The National Biodiversity Authority
- B. The State Biodiversity Board
- C. The Biodiversity Management Committee
- D. The Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks
Q14. Under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, prior approval of the National Biodiversity Authority is mandatory for a foreign national, a non-resident Indian, or a body corporate not registered in India before obtaining Indian biological resources, under which section?
- A. Section 3
- B. Section 6
- C. Section 8
- D. Section 41
Q15. With reference to the Convention on Biological Diversity and the Nagoya Protocol, consider the following statements:
1. The Nagoya Protocol was adopted in 2010 and entered into force in 2014.
2. The Convention on Biological Diversity was opened for signature at the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro.
3. India signed the Nagoya Protocol in 2011 and ratified it in 2012.
4. The Nagoya Protocol is a supplementary agreement to the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
- The Nagoya Protocol was adopted in 2010 and entered into force in 2014.
- The Convention on Biological Diversity was opened for signature at the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro.
- India signed the Nagoya Protocol in 2011 and ratified it in 2012.
- The Nagoya Protocol is a supplementary agreement to the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 only
- C. 4 only
- D. 2 and 4 only
Q16. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) has three core objectives. The Nagoya Protocol on ABS is designed primarily to give effect to how many of these objectives?
- A. One
- B. Two
- C. Three
- D. None; it is independent of the CBD's objectives
Q17. The Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) mechanism that realised Rs. 21.26 crore in FY 2025–26 is operationalised solely by which one of the following?
- A. The National Biodiversity Authority, under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B. The Botanical Survey of India, under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- C. The National Medicinal Plants Board, under the Ministry of AYUSH
- D. The Central Pollution Control Board, under the Ministry of Jal Shakti
Q18. In the context of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, the term 'Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS)' most precisely refers to which one of the following?
- A. Fair and equitable sharing of the monetary and non-monetary benefits arising from the access and utilisation of biological resources and associated traditional knowledge
- B. Sharing of net revenue from forest produce between the Centre and the States under the Finance Commission's devolution formula
- C. Distribution of carbon-credit proceeds among communities living in and around notified biodiversity heritage sites
- D. Cross-subsidy transferred from commercial users of forests to fund afforestation under the compensatory afforestation fund
Q19. With reference to the institutional architecture under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, consider the following statements:
1. The National Biodiversity Authority operates at the national level, while State Biodiversity Boards are constituted at the state level under Section 22.
2. Biodiversity Management Committees are constituted by every local body (panchayat or municipality) under Section 41.
3. The National Biodiversity Authority is headquartered in New Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The National Biodiversity Authority operates at the national level, while State Biodiversity Boards are constituted at the state level under Section 22.
- Biodiversity Management Committees are constituted by every local body (panchayat or municipality) under Section 41.
- The National Biodiversity Authority is headquartered in New Delhi.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q20. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is constituted as a statutory body exclusively under which one of the following provisions of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002?
- A. Section 8
- B. Section 3
- C. Section 22
- D. Section 41
Q21. With reference to India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) in comparison with other major carbon markets, consider the following statements:
1. The CCTS was notified under the Ministry of Power, with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency as its administrator.
2. The CCTS Compliance Mechanism sets rate-based greenhouse-gas emission-intensity targets rather than absolute emission caps.
3. India's carbon market covers a larger absolute volume of emissions than the national systems of China, the EU and the Republic of Korea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The CCTS was notified under the Ministry of Power, with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency as its administrator.
- The CCTS Compliance Mechanism sets rate-based greenhouse-gas emission-intensity targets rather than absolute emission caps.
- India's carbon market covers a larger absolute volume of emissions than the national systems of China, the EU and the Republic of Korea.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q22. As part of the 'Panchamrit' commitments announced at COP26, India's flagship long-term climate pledge is to achieve net-zero emissions by which one of the following years?
- A. 2070
- B. 2060
- C. 2050
- D. 2047
Q23. As highlighted in reporting on China's green transition, fossil fuels account for over what share of China's greenhouse-gas emissions, making the energy sector central to its transition?
- A. Over 90%
- B. Over 60%
- C. Over 45%
- D. Over 75%
Q24. In the context of China's dual carbon goals, the term 'carbon neutrality' (targeted before 2060) is best defined as which one of the following?
- A. A state in which a country's anthropogenic greenhouse-gas emissions are balanced by an equivalent quantity of removals
- B. The complete elimination of all greenhouse-gas emissions from every sector
- C. A total ban on imports and use of fossil fuels within the economy
- D. The freezing of national emissions at their peak level indefinitely
Q25. China's national Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS), including its 2025 expansion to heavy industry, is administered by which one of the following bodies?
- A. The Ministry of Ecology and Environment
- B. The National Development and Reform Commission
- C. The Ministry of Industry and Information Technology
- D. The National Energy Administration
Q26. With reference to China's national Emissions Trading Scheme (ETS) and its recent expansion, consider the following statements:
1. When it was launched in 2021, the ETS initially covered only the power sector.
2. In 2025 the ETS was expanded to bring steel, cement and aluminium smelting under its coverage.
3. The 2025 expansion was the first major sectoral broadening of the scheme since its launch.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- When it was launched in 2021, the ETS initially covered only the power sector.
- In 2025 the ETS was expanded to bring steel, cement and aluminium smelting under its coverage.
- The 2025 expansion was the first major sectoral broadening of the scheme since its launch.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q27. The WMO Global Annual to Decadal Climate Update is compiled from contributions of several Global Producing Centres. Which one of the following is NOT correctly identified as one of the four Global Producing Centres contributing to the update?
- UK Met Office
- Barcelona Supercomputing Centre
- Deutscher Wetterdienst
- National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), USA
- A. 1 only
- B. 3 only
- C. 4 only
- D. 2 and 4
Q28. Which one of the following mechanisms is identified as the principal driver of Arctic amplification?
- A. Surface ice-albedo feedback
- B. Cloud feedback
- C. Lapse-rate feedback
- D. Planck feedback
Q29. Reflecting the phenomenon of Arctic amplification, by approximately how many times the global average rate has the Arctic been warming since 1979, according to recent scientific assessments?
- A. About 1.5 times
- B. About twice
- C. Nearly four times
- D. About seven times
Q30. According to the WMO Global Annual to Decadal Climate Update 2026–2030, what is the probability that at least one individual year during 2026–2030 will temporarily exceed 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels?
- A. 75%
- B. 86%
- C. 91%
- D. 100%