Governance MCQs for UPSC Prelims

Q1. Modified UDAN combines Centre–State/UT MoUs with a Challenge Mode Portal for aerodrome development. In this context, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. MoUs under which the Centre and a State both commit resources and responsibilities for aerodrome development are an instance of cooperative federalism.
  2. Allocating central support among States through a fixed formula based on population and area is what makes the challenge mode an instance of competitive federalism.
  3. Under a challenge-mode process, States' proposals compete with each other, and support goes to those judged better rather than being spread automatically across all States.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q2. India's 2023 guidelines exempt pumped storage projects from the obligations to supply free power to the host State and to contribute to a Local Area Development Fund. Consider the following as possible consequences of this exemption: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The power to allot pumped storage sites shifts from the States to the Union, since the States no longer receive free power from such projects.
  2. The developer's cost of providing storage falls, improving the project's financial viability.
  3. The host State's direct fiscal incentive to offer its land and water for such projects weakens.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q3. India's 2023 guidelines exempt pumped storage projects from the obligations to supply free power to the host State and to contribute to a Local Area Development Fund. Consider the following as possible consequences of this exemption: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The power to allot pumped storage sites shifts from the States to the Union, since the States no longer receive free power from such projects.
  2. The developer's cost of providing storage falls, improving the project's financial viability.
  3. The host State's direct fiscal incentive to offer its land and water for such projects weakens.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q4. With reference to the regulation of weighing and measuring instruments under legal metrology, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Approval of a model evaluates whether the design of an instrument type conforms to prescribed requirements, and so it is granted for a model rather than for each individual unit.
  2. Because model approval establishes conformity of the design, an individual instrument of an approved model needs no subsequent verification while in commercial use.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. Both 1 and 2
  • D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q5. Consider the following assertion: Replacing criminal consequences with civil and graded consequences for minor lapses under the Legal Metrology Act can ease business without abandoning consumer protection. Which of the statements given above support/supports the assertion?

  1. Decriminalisation reduces the number of weighing and measuring instruments that must be verified before they are used in trade.
  2. Penalties for non-conforming pre-packaged commodities rise for second and subsequent violations, so deterrence against repeat offenders is retained.
  3. The prospect of criminal prosecution for technical lapses raises compliance costs disproportionately for micro and small enterprises.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q6. With reference to the Legal Metrology Act, 2009, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Central Government may delegate powers of the Director of Legal Metrology to a State's Controller, but only with the consent of that State Government.
  2. Units of weight and measure under the Act follow the metric system based on the International System of Units.
  3. The Act does not apply to weights or measures manufactured exclusively for export.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Under the Legal Metrology Act, 2009, legal metrology officers are appointed by the Central Government as well as by the State Governments.
  2. The Act assigns powers relating to inter-State trade and commerce to officers under a Director appointed by the Centre, and powers relating to intra-State trade and commerce to officers under a Controller appointed by the State.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q8. With reference to the 'Restatement of Values of Judicial Life' (1997), consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A judge's breach of the Restatement is a ground on which the Supreme Court can itself remove that judge from office.
  2. The Restatement was adopted by the Supreme Court at its own Full Court meeting rather than enacted by Parliament.
  3. An 'in-house procedure' was adopted for taking remedial action against judges who do not follow accepted values of judicial life.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. Suppose a State fee-fixation committee delays its periodic review, so that cost increases are not recovered from a batch during the relevant period. In the light of the Supreme Court's October 2026 reasoning on fees in professional courses, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The institution may recover the shortfall by raising the fee of that same batch midway through its course.
  2. Leaving the shortfall unrecovered at the relevant time tends to shift the burden of those costs onto future batches.
  3. The committee's own delay does not by itself amount to an unforeseeable or extraordinary economic condition.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q10. With reference to the Supreme Court's October 2026 ruling on fees charged by self-financing institutions for professional courses, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A periodic revision of fees that applies only to batches admitted in later years is not barred by the ruling.
  2. A fee increase imposed on an already-admitted batch midway through its course can be sustained only on narrow grounds, one of which is a change in statute.
  3. A rise in operating costs that the institution could have foreseen at the time of admission justifies raising the fee of a batch already enrolled.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 only

Q11. Consider the following assertion: 'Enlarging the Lok Sabha without changing how Parliament functions may weaken each MP's ability to speak for constituents on the floor of the House.' Which of the following statements support the above assertion?

  1. The Constitution does not guarantee any minimum number of sitting days for Parliament in a year.
  2. The number of questions that can be listed for oral answer on a single day is capped, irrespective of the size of the House.
  3. Enlarging the House would reduce the average number of electors in each constituency.
  4. Seats are allotted among States so that the ratio of seats to population is, so far as practicable, uniform.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q12. Consider the following regulatory features: Which of the above are characteristic of prescriptive (rules-based) regulation rather than principle-based regulation?

  1. A requirement to obtain a licence before a product can be launched
  2. Broad outcome statements, such as 'people first', which regulated entities interpret for themselves
  3. A bright-line numerical trigger that automatically activates a regulatory power
  4. Freedom for regulated entities to choose how they meet the stated goals
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q13. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. India's AI Governance Guidelines avoid making mandatory approvals or licensing a general precondition for AI deployment, unless it is necessary.
  2. Under the IndiaAI Mission, tens of thousands of GPUs have been onboarded and offered to users at subsidised rates.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q14. With reference to risk-based regulation of artificial intelligence, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Under the European Union's AI Act, AI systems classified as high-risk are barred from being placed on the EU market.
  2. Under a risk-based model, the same underlying AI technique may face different obligations depending on the purpose for which it is deployed.
  3. A power to block an AI model only when its expected harm crosses a catastrophic threshold follows the risk-based logic of reserving the strongest controls for the gravest risks.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q15. With reference to the regulation and structure of natural gas pipelines in India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board grants authorisation to entities to lay, build, operate and expand natural gas pipelines.
  2. The National Gas Grid is made up of interconnected pipeline networks owned and operated by several different companies.
  3. Only central public sector enterprises can be authorised to build and operate natural gas pipelines in India.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q16. With reference to the extraordinary powers available to the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority under Paragraph 19 of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. These powers can be exercised in respect of a drug whether or not it is listed in Schedule-I of the Order.
  2. A drug must first be added to the National List of Essential Medicines before these powers can be used to regulate its price.
  3. These powers have been used to regulate trade margins on certain medical devices as well.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q17. With reference to the regulation of drug prices under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. For a scheduled formulation, every manufacturer, whether it sells a branded or a generic version, must sell within the ceiling price notified by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (plus applicable GST).
  2. For a non-scheduled formulation, the manufacturer fixes the launch MRP itself but cannot raise it beyond a prescribed percentage over the MRP prevailing in the preceding twelve months.
  3. The ceiling prices of scheduled formulations can be revised every year in line with the Wholesale Price Index, without waiting for the National List of Essential Medicines to be revised.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q18. With reference to the Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. It replaced the Aircraft Rules, 1937, while the Aircraft Act, 1934 continues to govern matters of aviation safety.
  2. The Central Government may modify or cancel orders of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation, and its directions to the DGCA are binding.
  3. It reconstitutes the DGCA as a regulator independent of government control, on the lines of the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q19. Consider the following facts: Manipur's Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls, completed in September 2026, deleted 1,32,456 names and left 19,60,620 electors on the roll. The Election Commission then ordered a Special Summary Revision aimed at left-out, young and first-time eligible electors, with a draft roll, a period for claims and objections, and a final roll in January 2027. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?

  1. Roughly one in every sixteen names on the pre-revision roll was removed during the intensive revision.
  2. Every name removed during the intensive revision belonged to a person not eligible to be an elector.
  3. The final roll published in January 2027 may contain more electors than the number left after the intensive revision.
  4. Displacement caused by the ethnic conflict was the principal reason for the deletions made during the intensive revision.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 2 and 4 only

Q20. With reference to the institutional framework under the National Sports Governance Act, 2025, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Only national sports bodies recognised by the National Sports Board are eligible for funds from the Central government.
  2. If a national sports body loses its international recognition, the Board may set up an ad hoc body to manage that sport.
  3. Appeals against decisions of the National Sports Tribunal lie before the High Court of the State in which the federation is registered.
  4. The National Sports Tribunal can adjudicate disputes arising from games organised by international sports bodies.
  • A. 2 and 4 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Q21. With reference to the Assistance to National Sports Federations (ANSF) scheme, which is classified as a Central Sector Scheme, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The full cost of the scheme is met by the Union, and no matching contribution from State governments is required.
  2. Funds under the scheme are released to State governments, which then pass them on to State-level sports associations.
  3. Because sport is in the State List, the Union must obtain the consent of State governments before funds are released to a federation.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q22. With reference to the United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC), consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. It obliges every State Party to make illicit enrichment a criminal offence, regardless of its constitutional principles.
  2. The illicit enrichment that States are asked to consider criminalising is limited to conduct committed intentionally.
  3. India is a party to the Convention, having ratified it.
  • A. 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q23. Consider the following statements regarding investigation of corruption cases within States: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Even in a State that has withdrawn general consent under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, the CBI may investigate a case in that State if the High Court so directs.
  2. The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 requires the consent of the State Government before members of the CBI can exercise powers and jurisdiction in an area of that State.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q24. With reference to the changes made by the Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act, 2018, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Giving a bribe to a public servant was made a distinct offence, so that it is no longer dealt with only as abetment.
  2. The scope of criminal misconduct by a public servant was widened to cover any pecuniary advantage obtained without public interest.
  3. A person compelled to give a bribe is protected from prosecution if they report the matter to law-enforcement authorities within a prescribed period.
  4. Special judges were given a target period for completing trials, which can be extended only with reasons recorded in writing.
  • A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Q25. A Vigilance Court convicted a retired senior police officer of possessing assets disproportionate to his known sources of income. On appeal, he contends that the prosecution miscalculated his income from other sources. The High Court suspended his sentence and released him on bail pending the appeal. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?

  1. If the appellant's contention is accepted, the gap between his assets and his known lawful income could narrow.
  2. By suspending the sentence, the High Court has found that the prosecution's computation of income was erroneous.
  3. The appeal challenges whether an essential ingredient of the offence was proved, not merely the length of the sentence.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 1 only
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q26. Consider the following statements about disproportionate-assets cases under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 as it stands after the 2018 amendment: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Once the prosecution establishes that a public servant possessed assets disproportionate to known sources of income, the accused must satisfactorily account for them to avoid conviction.
  2. Accepting the Parliamentary Standing Committee's recommendation, the amended Act omitted any reference to intention, so illicit enrichment is now a strict-liability offence.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q27. With reference to the offence of illicit enrichment by a public servant under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, as amended in 2018, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The presumption of illicit enrichment arises when a public servant fails to file the annual property return, even if no disproportion between assets and income is shown.
  2. Once possession of assets disproportionate to known sources of income is established, it falls on the public servant to account for them satisfactorily.
  3. An error that understates the public servant's lawful income inflates the computed disproportion and can therefore decide whether the offence is made out.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q28. With reference to the process of declaring the Western Ghats an Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA), consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A draft ESA notification gives the public a fixed window to file objections before the Union government decides on the final notification.
  2. After the Supreme Court declined to entertain a petition against the Gadgil and Kasturirangan reports, the Union government was legally obliged to finalise the ESA notification.
  3. A fresh draft ESA notification can supersede an earlier draft that was never finalised.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q29. A 2026 Lancet Commission listed 17 interlinked catastrophic threats to global health through 2100, among them pandemics, antimicrobial resistance, obesity, air pollution, nuclear conflict and artificial intelligence. It urged leaders to stop treating these issues in isolation, while acknowledging that the past focus of global health activism on particular domains had produced many benefits. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?

  1. The Commission regards threats to human health as capable of arising outside the biomedical domain.
  2. The Commission holds that disease-specific global health programmes have, on balance, been counterproductive.
  3. The Commission's framing implies that action taken on one threat may change the risks posed by others.
  4. The Commission considers infectious diseases to be no longer among the principal threats to human health.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 2 and 4 only

Q30. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. India's National Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance envisages that States develop and implement their own action plans for the containment of antimicrobial resistance.
  2. Under the Seventh Schedule, public health and sanitation, as well as the prevention of animal diseases, are matters in the State List.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct