Governance MCQs for UPSC Prelims

Q1. Consider the following statements in respect of the Code on Social Security, 2020: 1. It received assent in 2020 and consolidates nine central enactments relating to social security into a single framework. 2. Its provisions, along with those of the other three labour codes, were brought into effect on 21 November 2025. 3. Eligibility for maternity benefit requires that the woman has worked in the establishment for at least eighty days in the twelve months immediately preceding the date of her expected delivery. 4. Its maternity benefit chapter was brought into force separately with effect from 1 April 2017, ahead of the remaining chapters of the Code. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. It received assent in 2020 and consolidates nine central enactments relating to social security into a single framework.
  2. Its provisions, along with those of the other three labour codes, were brought into effect on 21 November 2025.
  3. Eligibility for maternity benefit requires that the woman has worked in the establishment for at least eighty days in the twelve months immediately preceding the date of her expected delivery.
  4. Its maternity benefit chapter was brought into force separately with effect from 1 April 2017, ahead of the remaining chapters of the Code.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. Under the Code on Social Security, 2020, which one of the following is the social security organisation charged with administering the scheme under which insured women workers draw maternity benefit as an insurance benefit?

  • A. The Central Board of Trustees, which administers the provident fund, pension and deposit-linked insurance schemes
  • B. The National Social Security Board constituted for the welfare of unorganised workers
  • C. The Employees' State Insurance Corporation constituted under the Code
  • D. The Building and Other Construction Workers' Welfare Board funded by the labour cess

Q3. Consider the following statements comparing the Delhi High Court's 2026 reading of maternity protection with the narrower reading it displaced: 1. The Court proceeded on the footing that the petitioner was enforcing the statutory protection contained in Section 12 of the Maternity Benefit Act rather than a term of her employment contract. 2. The protection was held to run beyond continuity of employment and payment of wages, reaching duties, functional status and managerial authority. 3. The Court confined the protection to public employment, holding that a private company's internal deployment decisions fall outside the reach of Section 12. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Court proceeded on the footing that the petitioner was enforcing the statutory protection contained in Section 12 of the Maternity Benefit Act rather than a term of her employment contract.
  2. The protection was held to run beyond continuity of employment and payment of wages, reaching duties, functional status and managerial authority.
  3. The Court confined the protection to public employment, holding that a private company's internal deployment decisions fall outside the reach of Section 12.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. In its judgment of August 2026 on the position of a woman returning from maternity leave, the Delhi High Court identified certain attributes of her employment as falling within statutory protection. Consider the following: 1. Her reporting hierarchy and supervisory responsibilities. 2. Her prospects of appraisal and promotion. 3. The pay, grade and status of the alternative post, where the original post is genuinely unavailable for demonstrable organisational reasons. 4. An enhancement of grade corresponding to the period of leave, the leave being treated as service qualifying for accelerated promotion. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Her reporting hierarchy and supervisory responsibilities.
  2. Her prospects of appraisal and promotion.
  3. The pay, grade and status of the alternative post, where the original post is genuinely unavailable for demonstrable organisational reasons.
  4. An enhancement of grade corresponding to the period of leave, the leave being treated as service qualifying for accelerated promotion.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 4

Q5. Among the following classes of women employees, which one is entitled to the longest period of maternity benefit under the law as it stands after the 2017 amendment?

  • A. A woman who legally adopts a child below three months of age, reckoned from the date the child is handed over
  • B. A commissioning mother who obtains a child through surrogacy, reckoned from the date of handing over
  • C. A woman with less than two surviving children expecting the birth of a child
  • D. A woman with two or more surviving children expecting the birth of a further child

Q6. Consider the following statements about the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017: 1. It raised maximum paid maternity leave from 12 weeks to 26 weeks for a woman with less than two surviving children, of which not more than six weeks may precede the expected date of delivery. 2. It made a crèche facility mandatory for every establishment having fifty or more employees, with the woman permitted four visits a day to the crèche. 3. It introduced an option of work from home, for such period and on such conditions as the employer and the woman may mutually agree, depending on the nature of work assigned. 4. The 26-week entitlement was in fact introduced by the Code on Social Security, 2020, the 2017 amendment having added only the crèche and work-from-home provisions. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It raised maximum paid maternity leave from 12 weeks to 26 weeks for a woman with less than two surviving children, of which not more than six weeks may precede the expected date of delivery.
  2. It made a crèche facility mandatory for every establishment having fifty or more employees, with the woman permitted four visits a day to the crèche.
  3. It introduced an option of work from home, for such period and on such conditions as the employer and the woman may mutually agree, depending on the nature of work assigned.
  4. The 26-week entitlement was in fact introduced by the Code on Social Security, 2020, the 2017 amendment having added only the crèche and work-from-home provisions.
  • A. 1 and 4
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the protection available to a woman under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961: 1. It is unlawful for an employer to vary to her disadvantage any of the conditions of her service while she is absent in accordance with the Act. 2. Discharge of a woman at any time during her pregnancy does not have the effect of depriving her of the maternity benefit or medical bonus to which she would otherwise have been entitled. 3. Where a woman is dismissed for prescribed gross misconduct, the employer may deprive her of maternity benefit or medical bonus only by an order in writing communicated to her. 4. An employer who dismisses a woman on account of such absence is liable only to a monetary fine, imprisonment not being a punishment prescribed by the Act. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It is unlawful for an employer to vary to her disadvantage any of the conditions of her service while she is absent in accordance with the Act.
  2. Discharge of a woman at any time during her pregnancy does not have the effect of depriving her of the maternity benefit or medical bonus to which she would otherwise have been entitled.
  3. Where a woman is dismissed for prescribed gross misconduct, the employer may deprive her of maternity benefit or medical bonus only by an order in writing communicated to her.
  4. An employer who dismisses a woman on account of such absence is liable only to a monetary fine, imprisonment not being a punishment prescribed by the Act.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 4 only

Q8. At the Union level, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 and the maternity benefit provisions that succeed it in the Code on Social Security, 2020 are administered by which one of the following?

  • A. The Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • B. The Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • C. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • D. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

Q9. While holding registration of an FIR to be mandatory on information disclosing a cognizable offence, the Supreme Court in Lalita Kumari nevertheless set out an illustrative list of categories of cases in which a preliminary inquiry may first be made. How many such categories were listed?

  • A. Three
  • B. Four
  • C. Five
  • D. Seven

Q10. Which one of the following is the lead central agency for investigating terrorism-related offences in India, being empowered by its parent statute to investigate the offences listed in a Schedule to that statute even when they are committed outside India?

  • A. The Central Bureau of Investigation
  • B. The Enforcement Directorate
  • C. The National Investigation Agency
  • D. The Narcotics Control Bureau

Q11. Which one of the following is the leading Supreme Court judgment laying down that registration of a First Information Report is mandatory when the information received discloses a cognizable offence, and in which year was it delivered?

  • A. Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh, 2014
  • B. Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh, 2008
  • C. Vineet Narain v. Union of India, 1997
  • D. Prakash Singh v. Union of India, 2006

Q12. In the police handling of a death that is sudden or of doubtful cause, the term 'inquest' most precisely denotes which one of the following?

  • A. An inquiry by the police into the apparent cause of death, whose report is forwarded to the District Magistrate or Sub-Divisional Magistrate
  • B. An examination of the body by a registered medical practitioner to establish the medical cause and manner of death
  • C. The entry of information about a cognizable offence in the station diary made before a formal case is drawn up against any person
  • D. A proceeding in which a Magistrate examines the material and commits the matter concerning the death for trial before a Sessions Court

Q13. With reference to the general consent regime governing CBI investigations, consider the following statements: 1. Consent under the DSPE Act may be given either generally for classes of cases or specifically for a particular case. 2. Withdrawal of general consent by a State operates retrospectively, so that cases already registered by the CBI in that State before the withdrawal must be handed back to the State police. 3. After a withdrawal of general consent, the CBI taking over an FIR registered by the local police requires the State Government's consent together with a notification by the Central Government extending the powers and jurisdiction of CBI officers. 4. A State that has withdrawn its general consent can thereby prevent a High Court from directing a CBI investigation into an offence committed within that State. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Consent under the DSPE Act may be given either generally for classes of cases or specifically for a particular case.
  2. Withdrawal of general consent by a State operates retrospectively, so that cases already registered by the CBI in that State before the withdrawal must be handed back to the State police.
  3. After a withdrawal of general consent, the CBI taking over an FIR registered by the local police requires the State Government's consent together with a notification by the Central Government extending the powers and jurisdiction of CBI officers.
  4. A State that has withdrawn its general consent can thereby prevent a High Court from directing a CBI investigation into an offence committed within that State.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 4

Q14. With reference to the requirement of State consent for investigation by the CBI, consider the following statements: 1. Members of the Delhi Special Police Establishment cannot exercise powers and jurisdiction in an area within a State without the consent of that State Government. 2. Areas that are Union territories are outside the scope of this consent requirement. 3. Railway areas are outside the scope of this consent requirement. 4. Even where a State has withdrawn its general consent, an investigation may be taken up by the CBI on the specific directions of a Constitutional Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Members of the Delhi Special Police Establishment cannot exercise powers and jurisdiction in an area within a State without the consent of that State Government.
  2. Areas that are Union territories are outside the scope of this consent requirement.
  3. Railway areas are outside the scope of this consent requirement.
  4. Even where a State has withdrawn its general consent, an investigation may be taken up by the CBI on the specific directions of a Constitutional Court.
  • A. 1 and 4 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q15. The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, as amended in 2021, allows the tenure of the Director of the CBI to be extended one year at a time in public interest. Counted from the date of initial appointment, up to a maximum of how many years may the Director hold office?

  • A. Three years
  • B. Four years
  • C. Five years
  • D. Seven years

Q16. With reference to the legal status and institutional structure of the Central Bureau of Investigation, consider the following statements: 1. It draws its police powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, and not from any statute enacted specifically to create the CBI. 2. It functions under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training. 3. Superintendence over it, in so far as investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 is concerned, vests in the Central Vigilance Commission. 4. Its Director is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Chief Justice of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. It draws its police powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, and not from any statute enacted specifically to create the CBI.
  2. It functions under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training.
  3. Superintendence over it, in so far as investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 is concerned, vests in the Central Vigilance Commission.
  4. Its Director is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Chief Justice of India.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q17. With reference to the writ powers of the higher judiciary in India, which one of the following is the principal respect in which a High Court's power is wider than that of the Supreme Court in enforcing rights?

  • A. It is available for the enforcement of Part III rights and also for any other purpose, that is, for ordinary legal rights
  • B. It is itself a guaranteed fundamental right and therefore cannot be declined on grounds of discretion or alternative remedy
  • C. It reaches authorities located outside the court's territories irrespective of where the cause of action has arisen
  • D. It is the only writ power in the Constitution that survives a Presidential order made during a Proclamation of Emergency

Q18. Article 226 of the Constitution, besides empowering a High Court to issue directions and orders generally, expressly names certain writs by their traditional titles. How many such writs are named by title in Article 226?

  • A. Three
  • B. Four
  • C. Five
  • D. Six

Q19. Consider the following propositions relating to the judicial approach to public interest litigation in India: 1. Courts may impose costs on a petitioner where the litigation is found to be frivolous and an abuse of the process of law. 2. Courts examine the credentials of the petitioner and whether there was any credible mechanism to verify the information forming the basis of the petition. 3. A petition in the nature of public interest litigation is entertained only if the petitioner shows that a legal right personal to him has been infringed. 4. A writ court may decline relief where allegations against a public representative rest on assertions unsupported by documentary material. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Courts may impose costs on a petitioner where the litigation is found to be frivolous and an abuse of the process of law.
  2. Courts examine the credentials of the petitioner and whether there was any credible mechanism to verify the information forming the basis of the petition.
  3. A petition in the nature of public interest litigation is entertained only if the petitioner shows that a legal right personal to him has been infringed.
  4. A writ court may decline relief where allegations against a public representative rest on assertions unsupported by documentary material.
  • A. 3 only
  • B. 1 and 3
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 3 and 4

Q20. Which one of the following statements correctly identifies the provision of the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the effect attached to it in relation to Overseas Citizens of India?

  • A. Section 7A — the Central Government may register an eligible applicant as an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder
  • B. Section 7B — an OCI Cardholder is entitled to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment under the State
  • C. Section 5 — the prescribed authority may register a person of Indian origin as an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder
  • D. Section 7D — the Central Government may register as an OCI Cardholder a person ordinarily resident in India

Q21. Consider the following statements about the writ petition challenging the citizenship and Lok Sabha membership of the Leader of the Opposition that was disposed of by the Allahabad High Court in August 2026: 1. It was heard by a Division Bench sitting at the Lucknow Bench of the Allahabad High Court. 2. The petitioner appeared in person and was permitted to withdraw the petition as he produced no documentary evidence in support of his claims. 3. The relief sought was a writ in the nature of habeas corpus. 4. The Bench itself determined the citizenship question and recorded a finding that the respondent had voluntarily acquired British nationality. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It was heard by a Division Bench sitting at the Lucknow Bench of the Allahabad High Court.
  2. The petitioner appeared in person and was permitted to withdraw the petition as he produced no documentary evidence in support of his claims.
  3. The relief sought was a writ in the nature of habeas corpus.
  4. The Bench itself determined the citizenship question and recorded a finding that the respondent had voluntarily acquired British nationality.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 4

Q22. Consider the following pairs of a statutory instrument and the High Court arrangement it provides for: 1. U.P. High Courts (Amalgamation) Order, 1948 — amalgamation of the High Court at Allahabad and the Chief Court in Oudh into a single High Court 2. Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960 — sitting of nominated judges of the Bombay High Court at Nagpur for cases arising in specified districts 3. High Court at Bombay (Extension of Jurisdiction to Goa, Daman and Diu) Act, 1981 — sitting of nominated judges of the Bombay High Court at Panaji 4. Uttar Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2000 — establishment of the Lucknow Bench of the Allahabad High Court Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. U.P. High Courts (Amalgamation) Order, 1948 — amalgamation of the High Court at Allahabad and the Chief Court in Oudh into a single High Court
  2. Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960 — sitting of nominated judges of the Bombay High Court at Nagpur for cases arising in specified districts
  3. High Court at Bombay (Extension of Jurisdiction to Goa, Daman and Diu) Act, 1981 — sitting of nominated judges of the Bombay High Court at Panaji
  4. Uttar Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2000 — establishment of the Lucknow Bench of the Allahabad High Court
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1 and 4 only
  • D. 3 and 4

Q23. Consider the following as stated grounds on which a person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament under Article 102(1): 1. He holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, including an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder. 2. He is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court. 3. He is an undischarged insolvent. 4. He is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. He holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, including an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder.
  2. He is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court.
  3. He is an undischarged insolvent.
  4. He is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q24. A question arises whether a sitting Member of Parliament has become subject to the disqualification of having voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State. The decision on that question rests with which one of the following?

  • A. The President, who acts according to the opinion of the Election Commission of India
  • B. The Presiding Officer of the House concerned, who acts on a report of the Committee of Privileges
  • C. The Central Government in the Ministry of Home Affairs, after inquiry by the prescribed authority
  • D. The Supreme Court, in exercise of its original jurisdiction between the Union and a State

Q25. Which one of the following most accurately describes the writ of quo warranto as issued by courts in India?

  • A. An order calling upon a person to show the legal authority by which he holds a public office of a substantive character
  • B. An order calling upon a person to show the legal authority by which he holds any office, whether public or private, including posts in private associations
  • C. An order directing a public authority to perform a public duty which it has failed or refused to perform
  • D. An order quashing a decision already made by an inferior tribunal that acted without jurisdiction

Q26. The power of a High Court to issue writs in the nature of quo warranto not merely for the enforcement of fundamental rights but also for any other purpose is traceable to which one of the following provisions of the Constitution?

  • A. Article 226
  • B. Article 227
  • C. Article 32
  • D. Article 139

Q27. Consider the following statements about renunciation, termination and deprivation of citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955: 1. Where a declaration of renunciation is made during a war in which India is engaged, the declaration is to be registered forthwith, and the minor children of the declarant retain Indian citizenship. 2. Cessation of citizenship on the voluntary acquisition of the citizenship of another country operates upon such acquisition and does not depend upon any order made by the Central Government. 3. The Central Government shall not deprive a person of citizenship unless it is satisfied that it is not conducive to the public good that that person should continue to be a citizen of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Where a declaration of renunciation is made during a war in which India is engaged, the declaration is to be registered forthwith, and the minor children of the declarant retain Indian citizenship.
  2. Cessation of citizenship on the voluntary acquisition of the citizenship of another country operates upon such acquisition and does not depend upon any order made by the Central Government.
  3. The Central Government shall not deprive a person of citizenship unless it is satisfied that it is not conducive to the public good that that person should continue to be a citizen of India.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q28. Consider the following statements comparing Article 9 of the Constitution with Section 9(1) of the Citizenship Act, 1955: 1. Article 9 denies Indian citizenship to a person who has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, and it operates with reference to acquisition before the commencement of the Constitution. 2. Section 9(1) deals with voluntary acquisition of the citizenship of another country on or after 26 January 1950, and such a person ceases to be a citizen of India upon such acquisition. 3. Under both Article 9 and Section 9(1), the loss of Indian citizenship takes effect only when the Central Government passes an order recording that it is not conducive to the public good that the person should continue to be a citizen of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Article 9 denies Indian citizenship to a person who has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, and it operates with reference to acquisition before the commencement of the Constitution.
  2. Section 9(1) deals with voluntary acquisition of the citizenship of another country on or after 26 January 1950, and such a person ceases to be a citizen of India upon such acquisition.
  3. Under both Article 9 and Section 9(1), the loss of Indian citizenship takes effect only when the Central Government passes an order recording that it is not conducive to the public good that the person should continue to be a citizen of India.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q29. If a question arises as to whether, when or how a citizen of India has acquired the citizenship of another country, which one of the following is the authority empowered to determine that question?

  • A. The Central Government in the Ministry of Home Affairs, in the manner prescribed by the Citizenship Rules
  • B. The Ministry of External Affairs, acting through the Indian Mission in the country whose citizenship is alleged
  • C. The High Court within whose territorial jurisdiction the person concerned ordinarily resides in India
  • D. The Election Commission of India, upon a reference made to it for its opinion by the President

Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the litigation over organised service status and promotion avenues of Central Armed Police Forces officers: 1. The February 2019 Supreme Court ruling that recognised the CAPFs as 'organised services' was delivered on appeals by the Ministry of Defence against orders of the Armed Forces Tribunal. 2. The Non-Functional Financial Upgradation extended to Group A officers of the CAPFs was traced to the Sixth Pay Commission and made applicable from 2006. 3. The 2026 challenge to the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Act was brought directly before the Supreme Court under Article 32 by cadre officers of the five forces. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The February 2019 Supreme Court ruling that recognised the CAPFs as 'organised services' was delivered on appeals by the Ministry of Defence against orders of the Armed Forces Tribunal.
  2. The Non-Functional Financial Upgradation extended to Group A officers of the CAPFs was traced to the Sixth Pay Commission and made applicable from 2006.
  3. The 2026 challenge to the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Act was brought directly before the Supreme Court under Article 32 by cadre officers of the five forces.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3