Governance MCQs for UPSC Prelims — January 2026
Q1. Once the Centre sanctions legacy waste remediation funds for a state under Lakshya Zero Dumpsite, the actual on-ground execution of the remediation projects is carried out primarily by which one of the following?
- A. Urban Local Bodies
- B. NITI Aayog
- C. Central Pollution Control Board
- D. State Pollution Control Boards
Q2. Under 'Lakshya Zero Dumpsite', the Government of India approved a ₹433.74 crore legacy waste remediation proposal for which one of the following states?
- A. Maharashtra
- B. Andhra Pradesh
- C. Rajasthan
- D. Telangana
Q3. Which one of the following is the dedicated flagship vertical of SBM-U 2.0 specifically aimed at scientifically remediating legacy waste dumpsites and reclaiming the land?
- A. Lakshya Zero Dumpsite
- B. Used (Grey) Water Management
- C. Garbage Free Cities star-rating protocol
- D. ODF+ / ODF++ certification
Q4. 'Lakshya Zero Dumpsite' operates as a flagship vertical of a parent urban mission that was launched in which year?
- A. 2014
- B. 2021
- C. 2019
- D. 2022
Q5. For a period of how many years was Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban 2.0 launched in 2021?
- A. Three years
- B. Five years
- C. Seven years
- D. Ten years
Q6. Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban 2.0, under which legacy dumpsites are being remediated, is implemented by which one of the following ministries?
- A. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- C. Ministry of Jal Shakti
- D. Ministry of Rural Development
Q7. The Dumpsite Remediation Accelerator Programme, aimed at achieving 'Zero Dumpsites', is being carried out as an accelerator vertical under which one of the following flagship missions?
- A. Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban 2.0
- B. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) 2.0
- C. Smart Cities Mission
- D. National Mission for Clean Ganga
Q8. With reference to the administration of waqf properties in India, consider the following statements:
1. A mutawalli is the manager of a waqf and does not own the waqf property.
2. A Waqf Tribunal is deemed to be a civil court exercising powers under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
3. The maximum lease period of waqf property was raised from three years to thirty years by the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2013.
4. A mutawalli is the person who originally dedicates his own property to create the waqf.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- A mutawalli is the manager of a waqf and does not own the waqf property.
- A Waqf Tribunal is deemed to be a civil court exercising powers under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
- The maximum lease period of waqf property was raised from three years to thirty years by the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2013.
- A mutawalli is the person who originally dedicates his own property to create the waqf.
- A. 1, 2 and 3
- B. 1 and 4 only
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q9. Among the six centrally notified minority communities in India, which one was the most recent to be added to the notified list?
- A. Jains
- B. Buddhists
- C. Sikhs
- D. Zoroastrians (Parsis)
Q10. Following the launch of the UMEED Central Portal, the window granted to Waqf Boards to upload waqf property details before its closure on 6 December 2025 was of how many months' duration?
- A. Six months
- B. Three months
- C. Nine months
- D. Twelve months
Q11. The 'upload window' that closed on 6 December 2025 on the UMEED Central Portal refers to the period fixed for which one of the following?
- A. Uploading and registering details of waqf properties by Waqf Boards/Mutawallis on the portal
- B. Filing of public objections against completed waqf surveys before the Tribunal
- C. Disposal of pending waqf title disputes by Waqf Tribunals
- D. Submission of annual audited accounts of waqf institutions to the Central Waqf Council
Q12. Who is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Central Waqf Council?
- A. The Union Minister in charge of Minority Affairs
- B. The Chairperson of a State Waqf Board
- C. The Chief Executive Officer of the Central Waqf Council
- D. The Survey Commissioner of Waqf
Q13. The Central Waqf Council, the apex advisory body on the administration of Auqaf, was set up as a statutory body in which year?
- A. 1964
- B. 1954
- C. 1995
- D. 2006
Q14. Consider the following statements comparing the position under the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 with the earlier framework:
1. It restores the requirement that only a person practising Islam for at least five years may dedicate his own property as waqf.
2. It does away with the creation of new waqf through 'waqf by user'.
3. It introduces, for the very first time in Indian law, the appointment of Survey Commissioners to survey waqf properties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- It restores the requirement that only a person practising Islam for at least five years may dedicate his own property as waqf.
- It does away with the creation of new waqf through 'waqf by user'.
- It introduces, for the very first time in Indian law, the appointment of Survey Commissioners to survey waqf properties.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q15. Under the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, an inquiry into whether a property claimed as waqf is in fact government property is to be conducted by an officer of which one of the following ranks?
- A. An officer above the rank of Collector, designated by the State Government
- B. The Survey Commissioner of Waqf
- C. The Chief Executive Officer of the State Waqf Board
- D. The Presiding Officer of the Waqf Tribunal
Q16. The Survey Module and the Waqf Property Lease Module were launched on the UMEED Central Portal in January 2026 under the authority of which one of the following?
- A. Secretary, Ministry of Minority Affairs
- B. Union Minister of Minority Affairs
- C. Chairperson of the Central Waqf Council
- D. Chief Executive Officer of a State Waqf Board
Q17. With reference to modules on the UMEED Central Portal, consider the following module–function pairings:
1. Survey Module — a digital framework for capturing, managing and updating information on the survey of waqf properties.
2. Waqf Property Lease Module — recording lease information such as lease period and lease amount of waqf properties.
3. Accounts & Audit Module — strengthening the financial governance of waqf institutions.
4. Haj Suvidha Module — online allotment of Haj pilgrimage quotas to applicants.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- Survey Module — a digital framework for capturing, managing and updating information on the survey of waqf properties.
- Waqf Property Lease Module — recording lease information such as lease period and lease amount of waqf properties.
- Accounts & Audit Module — strengthening the financial governance of waqf institutions.
- Haj Suvidha Module — online allotment of Haj pilgrimage quotas to applicants.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3
- C. 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q18. The UMEED Central Portal for real-time uploading, verification and monitoring of waqf properties is developed and operationalised by which one of the following ministries?
- A. Ministry of Minority Affairs
- B. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- C. Ministry of Culture
- D. Ministry of Law and Justice
Q19. The acronym 'UMEED', as used in the UMEED Central Portal for waqf properties, stands for which one of the following?
- A. Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development
- B. Universal Minority Endowment, Education and Development
- C. Unified Muslim Endowment and Estate Digitisation
- D. Unified Management of Endowments, Enterprises and Donations
Q20. While staying the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026, the Supreme Court directed that the 2012 Equity Regulations would continue to apply until further orders. This direction was issued in exercise of the Court's powers under which one of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
- A. Article 32
- B. Article 136
- C. Article 142
- D. Article 226
Q21. The Supreme Court Bench that on 29 January 2026 stayed the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026 consisted of how many judges?
- A. Two
- B. Three
- C. Five
- D. Seven
Q22. The India-AI Impact Summit 2026, held at Bharat Mandapam, was organised by which one of the following Union ministries?
- A. Ministry of Science and Technology
- B. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- C. NITI Aayog
- D. Ministry of Education
Q23. At the Union level, the Trade Unions Act, 1926 and the consolidated Labour Codes (2019–2020) governing the rights of trade unions whose protests followed the Supreme Court's January 2026 observation are administered by which one of the following?
- A. Ministry of Labour and Employment
- B. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
- C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D. Ministry of Home Affairs
Q24. With reference to how the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 differs from the Trade Unions Act, 1926 (which it subsumes), consider the following statements:
1. While the 1926 Act was enacted in the colonial period, the 2020 Code is part of the post-2019 consolidation of central labour laws.
2. The 2020 Code introduces the concept of a 'negotiating union' or 'negotiating council' for collective bargaining, which was absent in the 1926 Act.
3. Unlike the 1926 Act, the 2020 Code withdraws the protection of the right to form associations or unions guaranteed under Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- While the 1926 Act was enacted in the colonial period, the 2020 Code is part of the post-2019 consolidation of central labour laws.
- The 2020 Code introduces the concept of a 'negotiating union' or 'negotiating council' for collective bargaining, which was absent in the 1926 Act.
- Unlike the 1926 Act, the 2020 Code withdraws the protection of the right to form associations or unions guaranteed under Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q25. With reference to the constitutional and statutory framework underlying the trade unions' response to the Supreme Court's January 2026 observation on industrial stagnation, consider the following statements:
1. Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution guarantees the right to form associations or unions as a Fundamental Right.
2. Reasonable restrictions on this right can be imposed by the State under Article 19(4).
3. The Trade Unions Act, 1926 provides legal immunity to registered trade union office-bearers for bonafide trade-union activities.
4. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 places an absolute and permanent prohibition on strikes in all private-sector industries.
Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?
- Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution guarantees the right to form associations or unions as a Fundamental Right.
- Reasonable restrictions on this right can be imposed by the State under Article 19(4).
- The Trade Unions Act, 1926 provides legal immunity to registered trade union office-bearers for bonafide trade-union activities.
- The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 places an absolute and permanent prohibition on strikes in all private-sector industries.
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q26. The Government of India between 2019 and 2020 consolidated 29 central labour laws — including the Trade Unions Act, 1926 — into how many Labour Codes?
- A. Two
- B. Three
- C. Four
- D. Five
Q27. With reference to the Public Interest Litigation disposed of by the Supreme Court in January 2026 that triggered protests by central trade unions, consider the following statements:
1. The PIL was filed by an industry association representing manufacturing employers.
2. The Bench held that fixing minimum wages for domestic workers falls within the policy domain of the executive and the legislatures.
3. The Bench orally observed that trade unionism was responsible for stalling industrial growth in the country.
4. The PIL had specifically sought statutory recognition of minimum wages for domestic workers.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
- The PIL was filed by an industry association representing manufacturing employers.
- The Bench held that fixing minimum wages for domestic workers falls within the policy domain of the executive and the legislatures.
- The Bench orally observed that trade unionism was responsible for stalling industrial growth in the country.
- The PIL had specifically sought statutory recognition of minimum wages for domestic workers.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 4 only
- D. 3 and 4 only
Q28. Comparing the National Guidelines for Stem Cell Research, 2017 with the Supreme Court's 2026 judgment in Yash Charitable Trust v. Union of India, consider the following statements:
1. The 2017 Guidelines had permitted stem cell therapy as a routine clinical service for Autism Spectrum Disorder, a position now overturned by the 2026 judgment.
2. While the 2017 Guidelines lacked binding statutory force, the 2026 judgment directs the constitution of a dedicated national regulatory authority for stem cell oversight.
3. Both the 2017 Guidelines and the 2026 judgment treat the use of stem cell therapy outside an approved and monitored clinical trial — for indications other than recognised standard-care exceptions — as impermissible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The 2017 Guidelines had permitted stem cell therapy as a routine clinical service for Autism Spectrum Disorder, a position now overturned by the 2026 judgment.
- While the 2017 Guidelines lacked binding statutory force, the 2026 judgment directs the constitution of a dedicated national regulatory authority for stem cell oversight.
- Both the 2017 Guidelines and the 2026 judgment treat the use of stem cell therapy outside an approved and monitored clinical trial — for indications other than recognised standard-care exceptions — as impermissible.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q29. Following the Supreme Court's 2026 ruling in Yash Charitable Trust v. Union of India, which one of the following bodies issued the advisory directing medical colleges, institutions and registered medical practitioners to restrict stem cell therapy to the 32 conditions approved on ICMR recommendations?
- A. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
- B. Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI)
- C. Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS)
- D. National Medical Commission (NMC)
Q30. The UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026 were notified by a statutory body functioning under which one of the following?
- A. Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education
- B. Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education
- C. Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D. Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment