Governance MCQs for UPSC Prelims — April 2026

Q1. With reference to the mandate of the Indian Coast Guard, consider the following functions. Which of the above is/are correctly identified as functions of the Indian Coast Guard?

  1. Protection of the marine environment, including oil-spill response
  2. Coordination of maritime search and rescue in India's maritime zones
  3. Production of official Electronic Navigational Charts for seagoing vessels
  4. Enforcement of maritime law within the Exclusive Economic Zone
  • A. 1, 2 and 4
  • B. 1 and 3
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. A Significant Social Media Intermediary under the IT Rules, 2021 must appoint certain officers, all resident in India. Consider the following: 1. Chief Compliance Officer 2. Nodal Contact Person 3. Resident Grievance Officer 4. Data Protection Officer Which of the above is/are correctly identified as an officer that a Significant Social Media Intermediary is required to appoint?

  1. Chief Compliance Officer
  2. Nodal Contact Person
  3. Resident Grievance Officer
  4. Data Protection Officer
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q3. Consider the following statements comparing the intermediary due-diligence regime with its predecessor: 1. The IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 replaced the earlier Intermediary Guidelines Rules of 2011. 2. The 2021 Rules require an intermediary to remove content within 36 hours of a court order or government direction. 3. The 2021 Rules require an intermediary to retain records of removed or blocked content for 30 days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 replaced the earlier Intermediary Guidelines Rules of 2011.
  2. The 2021 Rules require an intermediary to remove content within 36 hours of a court order or government direction.
  3. The 2021 Rules require an intermediary to retain records of removed or blocked content for 30 days.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Which Union ministry is the nodal ministry for the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013, and launched the SHe-Box single-window online complaint portal?

  • A. Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • B. Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • C. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • D. Ministry of Home Affairs

Q5. Digital vigilantism is frequently framed as a response to the perceived inadequacy of formal redressal for workplace sexual harassment. The statutory mechanism mandating an Internal Committee for such complaints was established under which Act?

  • A. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 1997
  • B. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2005
  • C. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013
  • D. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2015

Q6. The statutory framework on intermediary liability that governs the online amplification underlying 'digital vigilantism' rests on the Information Technology Act, 2000. Which Union ministry administers this Act?

  • A. Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  • C. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • D. Ministry of Communications

Q7. Digital vigilantism is often traced to the perceived failure of formal workplace redressal mechanisms. Under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, an employer is statutorily required to constitute an Internal Committee only if the establishment employs at least how many persons?

  • A. 5
  • B. 10
  • C. 20
  • D. 50

Q8. The predecessor 'Household Social Consumption: Health' survey, with reference period July 2017–June 2018, was conducted under which round of the National Sample Survey?

  • A. 75th Round
  • B. 71st Round
  • C. 68th Round
  • D. 79th Round

Q9. With reference to India's health-financing frameworks, consider the following statements: 1. The National Health Accounts (NHA) estimates for India are prepared by the National Health Systems Resource Centre under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. 2. In the NHA estimates for 2022-23, Government Health Expenditure exceeded households' Out-of-Pocket Expenditure as a share of Total Health Expenditure for the first time. 3. The National Health Policy, 2017 set a target of raising public health expenditure to 2.5% of GDP by 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The National Health Accounts (NHA) estimates for India are prepared by the National Health Systems Resource Centre under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
  2. In the NHA estimates for 2022-23, Government Health Expenditure exceeded households' Out-of-Pocket Expenditure as a share of Total Health Expenditure for the first time.
  3. The National Health Policy, 2017 set a target of raising public health expenditure to 2.5% of GDP by 2025.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q10. How many households in total were canvassed in the NSS 80th Round Household Social Consumption: Health survey?

  • A. 1,39,732
  • B. 1,29,732
  • C. 1,49,732
  • D. 1,13,732

Q11. Which one of the following is the nodal agency that administers Ayushman Bharat–PMJAY, the flagship scheme credited with lowering out-of-pocket health expenditure captured in the survey?

  • A. National Health Authority
  • B. National Health Systems Resource Centre
  • C. National Statistical Office
  • D. Central Bureau of Health Intelligence

Q12. Comparing health-scheme/insurance coverage between the 75th Round (2017-18) and the 80th Round (2025), consider the following statements: 1. Rural coverage rose from 12.9% in 2017-18 to 45.5% in 2025. 2. Urban coverage rose from 8.9% in 2017-18 to 31.8% in 2025. 3. In both rounds, urban coverage remained higher than rural coverage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Rural coverage rose from 12.9% in 2017-18 to 45.5% in 2025.
  2. Urban coverage rose from 8.9% in 2017-18 to 31.8% in 2025.
  3. In both rounds, urban coverage remained higher than rural coverage.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q13. The steep rise in government health-scheme coverage captured by the 80th Round is attributed largely to Ayushman Bharat–PMJAY. Under this scheme, the health cover provided is:

  • A. ₹5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalisation
  • B. ₹1 lakh per individual per year for primary and outpatient care
  • C. ₹3 lakh per family per year covering all outpatient consultations
  • D. ₹10 lakh per family per year restricted to tertiary care only

Q14. In the context of the NSS 80th Round health survey, the term 'institutional delivery' is best defined as:

  • A. A childbirth that takes place in a medical institution such as a government or private hospital/health facility
  • B. A childbirth attended by a skilled birth attendant, irrespective of the place of delivery
  • C. A childbirth registered under the civil registration system within the stipulated period
  • D. A childbirth conducted under a government cash-incentive scheme such as Janani Suraksha Yojana

Q15. With reference to institutional deliveries in the NSS 80th Round, consider the following: 1. Rural institutional deliveries rose from 90.5% in 2017-18 to 95.6% in 2025. 2. Urban institutional deliveries reached 97.8% in 2025. 3. In 2025, every rural delivery took place in a government health facility. 4. Overall, about 96.2% of deliveries in the reference period were institutional. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Rural institutional deliveries rose from 90.5% in 2017-18 to 95.6% in 2025.
  2. Urban institutional deliveries reached 97.8% in 2025.
  3. In 2025, every rural delivery took place in a government health facility.
  4. Overall, about 96.2% of deliveries in the reference period were institutional.
  • A. 1, 2 and 4
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q16. The Proportion of Population Reporting Ailment (PPRA) figures for 2025 are generated institutionally through which one of the following?

  • A. The NSS Household Social Consumption: Health survey conducted by the NSO under MoSPI
  • B. The National Family Health Survey conducted by the NSO under MoSPI
  • C. The National Health Accounts prepared by the NSO under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • D. The Sample Registration System maintained by the NSO under MoSPI

Q17. As per the NSS 80th Round, which one of the following recorded the highest Proportion of Population Reporting Ailment (PPRA)?

  • A. Urban areas in the 80th Round (2025)
  • B. Rural areas in the 80th Round (2025)
  • C. Urban areas in the 75th Round (2017-18)
  • D. Rural areas in the 75th Round (2017-18)

Q18. With reference to the National Sample Survey (NSS) 80th Round, consider the following: 1. It is conducted by the National Statistical Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. 2. The reference period for its health module is January–December 2025. 3. Its immediate predecessor comparable round on health was the 68th Round of 2011-12. 4. It fielded the Household Social Consumption: Health survey alongside a Comprehensive Modular Survey on Telecom. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. It is conducted by the National Statistical Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
  2. The reference period for its health module is January–December 2025.
  3. Its immediate predecessor comparable round on health was the 68th Round of 2011-12.
  4. It fielded the Household Social Consumption: Health survey alongside a Comprehensive Modular Survey on Telecom.
  • A. 1, 2 and 4
  • B. 1, 3 and 4
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q19. The 80th Round Survey on 'Household Social Consumption: Health' (reference period January–December 2025) is conducted by which one of the following?

  • A. National Statistical Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • B. International Institute for Population Sciences under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • C. National Health Systems Resource Centre under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • D. Office of the Registrar General of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs

Q20. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the institutional status of Indian Railways?

  • A. It is a departmental undertaking of the Central Government, managed directly by the Government
  • B. It is a statutory corporation registered under the Companies Act
  • C. It is a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Heavy Industries
  • D. It is an autonomous body functioning under NITI Aayog

Q21. The Railway Board is headed by a Chairman (who is also the CEO) along with functional Members. Which of the following is NOT correctly identified as a Member of the Railway Board? 1. Member (Infrastructure) 2. Member (Operations & Business Development) 3. Member (Rolling Stock) 4. Member (Signal & Telecommunication) Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Member (Infrastructure)
  2. Member (Operations & Business Development)
  3. Member (Rolling Stock)
  4. Member (Signal & Telecommunication)
  • A. 4 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 3 only

Q22. With reference to judicial precedents bearing on inter-faith adoption and guardianship in India, consider the following statements: 1. In Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court held that Muslims may adopt under the Juvenile Justice Act notwithstanding personal law. 2. In Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court declared the right to adopt to be a fundamental right under Part III of the Constitution. 3. The Juvenile Justice Act provides a secular route to adoption available irrespective of a person's personal law. 4. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 permits appointment of a guardian irrespective of the guardian's religion. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. In Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court held that Muslims may adopt under the Juvenile Justice Act notwithstanding personal law.
  2. In Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court declared the right to adopt to be a fundamental right under Part III of the Constitution.
  3. The Juvenile Justice Act provides a secular route to adoption available irrespective of a person's personal law.
  4. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 permits appointment of a guardian irrespective of the guardian's religion.
  • A. 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 4 only

Q23. Under Muslim personal law, formal adoption in the sense of full filiation is not recognised primarily because it is regarded as doing which one of the following?

  • A. Altering the child's lineage (nasab) and inheritance entitlements
  • B. Invariably requiring the prior sanction of a civil court
  • C. Permanently vesting the child's property in the State
  • D. Automatically dissolving the guardian's own marriage

Q24. With reference to the features of Kafala under Islamic law, consider the following statements: 1. It does not sever the legal ties between the child and the biological parents. 2. The child does not thereby acquire inheritance rights in the guardian's estate. 3. The child does not take on the guardian's family name. 4. It permanently alters the child's lineage and confers full filiation, exactly as adoption does. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It does not sever the legal ties between the child and the biological parents.
  2. The child does not thereby acquire inheritance rights in the guardian's estate.
  3. The child does not take on the guardian's family name.
  4. It permanently alters the child's lineage and confers full filiation, exactly as adoption does.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 2 and 4

Q25. Kafala under Islamic law is expressly recognised as a form of alternative care for children deprived of a family environment under which of the following?

  • A. Article 21 of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child
  • B. Article 20 of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child
  • C. The Hague Convention on International Child Abduction, 1980
  • D. Article 3 of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child

Q26. With reference to the relationship between the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 and the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, consider the following statements: 1. The 1956 Act applies only to Hindus, whereas the 1890 Act applies across communities. 2. The 1956 Act is 'in addition to, and not in derogation of' the 1890 Act. 3. Under the 1956 Act, the father is the natural guardian of a legitimate Hindu minor boy and unmarried girl. 4. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 was enacted after, and to supplement, the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The 1956 Act applies only to Hindus, whereas the 1890 Act applies across communities.
  2. The 1956 Act is 'in addition to, and not in derogation of' the 1890 Act.
  3. Under the 1956 Act, the father is the natural guardian of a legitimate Hindu minor boy and unmarried girl.
  4. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 was enacted after, and to supplement, the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 4 only
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 3 only

Q27. Under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, custody of a Hindu minor who has not completed how many years of age shall ordinarily be with the mother?

  • A. Three years
  • B. Five years
  • C. Seven years
  • D. Twelve years

Q28. With regard to how the welfare (best-interest) principle compares with a strict statutory/parental-rights approach in Indian guardianship law, consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court has held that the welfare of the child is paramount and the statutory rights of parents are subordinate to it. 2. A father's statutory right to guardianship may be refused where his custody would not promote the welfare of the child. 3. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 itself supplies an exhaustive statutory list that conclusively determines the best interest of the child. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Supreme Court has held that the welfare of the child is paramount and the statutory rights of parents are subordinate to it.
  2. A father's statutory right to guardianship may be refused where his custody would not promote the welfare of the child.
  3. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 itself supplies an exhaustive statutory list that conclusively determines the best interest of the child.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q29. According to the settled position of the Supreme Court in guardianship and custody disputes, which one of the following is the first and paramount consideration?

  • A. The statutory right of the natural father
  • B. The welfare (best interest) of the child
  • C. The religion of the minor
  • D. The wishes of the minor's near relatives

Q30. The Madurai Bench described the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 as a 'religion-neutral' legislation. In the context of the ruling, this characterisation means which one of the following?

  • A. The Act applies to any person seeking appointment as guardian irrespective of the religion of the minor or the proposed guardian
  • B. The Act invariably requires a guardian to profess the same religion as the minor
  • C. The Act completely excludes any consideration of the minor's religion
  • D. The Act applies only where the minor and guardian belong to different religions