Governance MCQs for UPSC Prelims — August 2026

Q1. The Development and Welfare Board for De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Communities, approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2019, was set up as a body registered under which one of the following?

  • A. The Societies Registration Act, 1860, under the aegis of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • B. Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013, under the aegis of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs
  • C. A statute enacted by Parliament, on the pattern of the commissions set up under Article 338B
  • D. The Indian Trusts Act, 1882, under the aegis of the Ministry of Rural Development and NITI Aayog

Q2. The Banchhada, Bedia and Bachara of Madhya Pradesh, once registered under the Criminal Tribes Act, 1871, are today placed in which single category recognised by the Constitution?

  • A. Scheduled Tribes, since their colonial registration was expressly as 'tribes' subject to surveillance
  • B. Scheduled Castes, in the list notified for the State of Madhya Pradesh
  • C. Denotified Tribes, a distinct constitutional category created when the 1871 Act was repealed
  • D. Other Backward Classes, in the Central list maintained for the State of Madhya Pradesh

Q3. Once a community such as the Bedia has been included in the Scheduled Castes list of a State by a notified Presidential Order, any subsequent inclusion in or exclusion from that list can be effected only by which one of the following?

  • A. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes, through a binding recommendation sent to the State Government
  • B. The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, through an executive notification issued to the State Government
  • C. Parliament, by law amending the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order made for that State
  • D. The State Legislature, by a resolution ratified by the Governor of the State concerned

Q4. With reference to the India–UK Agreement on Social Security Contributions, consider the following: 1. It extends the exemption period from dual social security contributions from three years to five years. 2. It was signed on 10 February 2026 and takes effect alongside CETA on 15 July 2026. 3. Over 75,000 Indian professionals and more than 900 companies are expected to benefit from it. 4. On the Indian side it is administered by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, which also issues Certificates of Coverage to deputed workers. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. It extends the exemption period from dual social security contributions from three years to five years.
  2. It was signed on 10 February 2026 and takes effect alongside CETA on 15 July 2026.
  3. Over 75,000 Indian professionals and more than 900 companies are expected to benefit from it.
  4. On the Indian side it is administered by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, which also issues Certificates of Coverage to deputed workers.
  • A. 1 and 4
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q5. Certificates of Coverage, which operationalise India's social security agreements for workers deputed abroad, are issued by which one of the following?

  • A. The Employees' Provident Fund Organisation under the Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • B. The Employees' State Insurance Corporation under the Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • C. The Protector General of Emigrants under the Ministry of External Affairs
  • D. The Directorate General of Foreign Trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Q6. Consider the following pairs of Indian regulator and the tribunal hearing appeals against its orders: Securities and Exchange Board of India — Securities Appellate Tribunal; Telecom Regulatory Authority of India — Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal; Competition Commission of India — National Company Law Appellate Tribunal; Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India — Securities Appellate Tribunal. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  • A. Only one
  • B. Only two
  • C. Only three
  • D. All four

Q7. Consider the following propositions about the application of natural justice to statutory regulators exercising quasi-judicial functions in India: 1. The deciding authority must be free from bias or personal interest in the matter before it. 2. A party must be heard before an order adverse to its interests is passed against it. 3. A regulator proposing to depart from the findings of its own investigating officer must give the affected party an opportunity to respond on the points of departure. 4. Where a statute lays down a procedure for inquiry, principles of natural justice stand excluded and cannot be read into the proceedings. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The deciding authority must be free from bias or personal interest in the matter before it.
  2. A party must be heard before an order adverse to its interests is passed against it.
  3. A regulator proposing to depart from the findings of its own investigating officer must give the affected party an opportunity to respond on the points of departure.
  4. Where a statute lays down a procedure for inquiry, principles of natural justice stand excluded and cannot be read into the proceedings.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 4

Q8. In Indian administrative law, the maxim audi alteram partem embodies which one of the following requirements?

  • A. That every quasi-judicial authority must record reasons in support of the order it finally passes
  • B. That no person shall adjudicate upon a matter in which they hold a personal interest or stake
  • C. That a party likely to be affected must receive notice and a reasonable opportunity to be heard
  • D. That a matter finally decided between the same parties cannot be re-agitated in fresh proceedings

Q9. Which one of the following best describes the appellate power conferred by Section 53B of the Competition Act, 2002?

  • A. To hear only those appeals that the Commission itself certifies as raising a substantial question of law, filed within thirty days of the order
  • B. To hear appeals filed within sixty days by any aggrieved person, and to confirm, modify or set aside the Commission's order
  • C. To order a fresh investigation through the Tribunal's own Director General before ruling on whether the Commission's order should stand
  • D. To review its own earlier orders on an application by the Commission, appeals against the Commission's orders lying instead to the Supreme Court

Q10. Which one of the following statements about the forum that hears appeals against directions, decisions and orders of the Competition Commission of India is correct?

  • A. Every order of the Commission is appealable only to the High Court within whose jurisdiction the enterprise has its registered office
  • B. Appeals lie to the Securities Appellate Tribunal, whose findings on questions of fact are final and never open to further appeal
  • C. The Competition Appellate Tribunal continues to be the exclusive appellate forum for all orders passed by the Commission
  • D. Appeals lie to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal, which may confirm, modify or set aside the Commission's order

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding the Competition Commission of India and its statutory framework: 1. It is a statutory body functioning under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, established under the Competition Act, 2002. 2. Its Chairperson and Members are appointed by the Central Government from a panel of names recommended by a Selection Committee. 3. The Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023 extended the settlement and commitment framework to cartels as well as to abuse of dominant position. 4. The Director General is appointed by the Commission itself, and no prior approval of the Central Government is required for such appointment. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It is a statutory body functioning under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, established under the Competition Act, 2002.
  2. Its Chairperson and Members are appointed by the Central Government from a panel of names recommended by a Selection Committee.
  3. The Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023 extended the settlement and commitment framework to cartels as well as to abuse of dominant position.
  4. The Director General is appointed by the Commission itself, and no prior approval of the Central Government is required for such appointment.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 4

Q12. Under the Competition Act, 2002, which one of the following best describes the Director General?

  • A. An officer appointed to assist the Commission by investigating alleged contraventions, whose findings do not bind the Commission
  • B. A whole-time Member of the Commission who presides over the bench hearing abuse of dominance cases and signs its final order
  • C. The adjudicating officer who separately quantifies and recovers monetary penalties once the Commission has found a contravention
  • D. The nodal officer of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs whose prior approval the Commission must obtain before initiating any inquiry

Q13. Section 4(2) of the Competition Act, 2002 sets out the categories of conduct that constitute an abuse of dominant position. Into how many clauses is this enumeration organised?

  • A. Three
  • B. Four
  • C. Five
  • D. Seven

Q14. Under the Competition Act, 2002, which one of the following correctly describes a 'dominant position' held by an enterprise?

  • A. A market share above 50% of the relevant market, which the Act treats as conclusive proof of dominance
  • B. Strength in the relevant market that lets an enterprise operate independently of competitive forces or sway consumers in its favour
  • C. Status as the only supplier of a product in India, with no competing enterprise at all present in that market
  • D. A market position that by itself amounts to a contravention, rendering the enterprise automatically liable to penalty

Q15. Consider the following statements regarding programmes and bodies of the Department of Youth Affairs: 1. The National Service Scheme was launched on 24 September 1969, during the birth centenary of Mahatma Gandhi. 2. The Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan reaches out primarily to urban youth for their empowerment and civic engagement. 3. Mera Yuva Bharat benefits youth in the age group of 15–29 years in line with the definition of 'Youth' in the National Youth Policy, while its adolescent-specific components cover the 10–19 age group. 4. Mera Yuva Bharat is designed as a 'phygital' platform, comprising physical activity along with an opportunity to connect digitally. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The National Service Scheme was launched on 24 September 1969, during the birth centenary of Mahatma Gandhi.
  2. The Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan reaches out primarily to urban youth for their empowerment and civic engagement.
  3. Mera Yuva Bharat benefits youth in the age group of 15–29 years in line with the definition of 'Youth' in the National Youth Policy, while its adolescent-specific components cover the 10–19 age group.
  4. Mera Yuva Bharat is designed as a 'phygital' platform, comprising physical activity along with an opportunity to connect digitally.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q16. The Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) platform was launched by the Prime Minister in which year and on which occasion?

  • A. In 2021, on National Youth Day observed on 12 January
  • B. In 2023, on National Youth Day observed on 12 January
  • C. In 2023, on National Unity Day observed on 31 October
  • D. In 2019, on National Unity Day observed on 31 October