Governance MCQs for UPSC Prelims — August 2026

Q1. Consider these four instances of States being renamed after independence: Madras to Tamil Nadu, Mysore to Karnataka, Uttaranchal to Uttarakhand, and Orissa to Odisha. How many of these renamings took effect after the year 2000?

  • A. Only one
  • B. Only two
  • C. Only three
  • D. All four

Q2. In Indian constitutional practice, an enactment styled an "Alteration of Name Act" — such as the Madras State (Alteration of Name) Act, 1968 or the Uttaranchal (Alteration of Name) Act, 2006 — is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. An ordinary Act of Parliament made under Article 3 that substitutes the State's name in the First Schedule
  • B. An Act of the State Legislature subsequently ratified by Parliament under Article 4
  • C. A constitutional amendment made under Article 368 with ratification by one-half of the States
  • D. A Presidential Order made under Article 372 adapting existing laws to the new name of the State

Q3. Which one of the following High Courts presently exercises jurisdiction over the largest number of full-fledged States?

  • A. The Bombay High Court
  • B. The Calcutta High Court
  • C. The Punjab and Haryana High Court
  • D. The Gauhati High Court

Q4. In India, how many High Courts are vested with ordinary original civil jurisdiction, the remaining High Courts exercising only appellate jurisdiction?

  • A. Three
  • B. Four
  • C. Five
  • D. Seven

Q5. Among the following name changes, all of which left the name of the corresponding High Court untouched, which one was the only change that could be effected solely by an Act of Parliament and not by the State Government?

  • A. Bombay to Mumbai
  • B. Madras to Chennai
  • C. Orissa to Odisha
  • D. Calcutta to Kolkata

Q6. Consider the Bombay High Court, the Calcutta High Court, the Madras High Court and the Orissa High Court. In how many of these four cases does the High Court continue to bear a name that differs from the present official name of the State, or of the city in which its principal seat is located?

  • A. Only one
  • B. Only two
  • C. Only three
  • D. All four

Q7. Consider the following statements comparing the renaming of a State with the renaming of its High Court in India: 1. While the name of a State is altered under Article 3, the alteration of the name of a High Court requires a separate law enacted by Parliament. 2. Unlike the alteration of a State's name, the alteration of a High Court's name may be notified by the Government of the State concerned. 3. The High Courts (Alteration of Names) Bill, 2016 was introduced by the Minister of Law and Justice, whereas the Kerala (Alteration of Name) Bill, 2026 was a Ministry of Home Affairs Bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. While the name of a State is altered under Article 3, the alteration of the name of a High Court requires a separate law enacted by Parliament.
  2. Unlike the alteration of a State's name, the alteration of a High Court's name may be notified by the Government of the State concerned.
  3. The High Courts (Alteration of Names) Bill, 2016 was introduced by the Minister of Law and Justice, whereas the Kerala (Alteration of Name) Bill, 2026 was a Ministry of Home Affairs Bill.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q8. Under the High Courts (Alteration of Names) Bill, 2016, the appropriate Government was empowered to amend or repeal any law in order to give effect to the alteration of the names of the High Courts, within a maximum period of how long from the commencement of the Act?

  • A. Six months
  • B. One year
  • C. Two years
  • D. Three years

Q9. The renaming of the State of Kerala as "Keralam" in 2026 was given legal effect by amending which one of the following?

  • A. The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution
  • B. The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution
  • C. The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution
  • D. The First Schedule to the Constitution

Q10. In the context of the Kerala (Alteration of Name) legislation of 2026, the expression "alteration of the name of a State" precisely denotes which one of the following?

  • A. A change requiring the prior and binding concurrence of the Legislature of the State concerned before Parliament may proceed further
  • B. A change made by an ordinary law of Parliament, the views of the State Legislature being sought but not binding upon Parliament
  • C. A change effected by a constitutional amendment necessarily ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of all the States
  • D. A change effected by a Presidential notification adapting the entries relating to the State in the Fourth Schedule

Q11. The Kerala (Alteration of Name) Bill, 2026 was introduced in the Lok Sabha by which one of the following Union Ministries?

  • A. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, which manages Government business in both Houses
  • B. The Ministry of Law and Justice, through its Legislative Department
  • C. The Ministry of Home Affairs, which handles Centre-State and States' reorganisation matters
  • D. The Ministry of Culture, which handles matters of linguistic and cultural nomenclature

Q12. With reference to the procedure followed for altering the name of the State of Kerala to "Keralam", consider the following statements: 1. The Union Cabinet approved the proposal for alteration of the name before the Bill was referred to the State Legislative Assembly for its views. 2. The Bill was referred to the Kerala Legislative Assembly by the Governor of Kerala for expressing its views. 3. The recommendation of the President was required for the introduction of the Bill in Parliament. 4. The Bill was piloted in Parliament by the Ministry of Law and Justice. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The Union Cabinet approved the proposal for alteration of the name before the Bill was referred to the State Legislative Assembly for its views.
  2. The Bill was referred to the Kerala Legislative Assembly by the Governor of Kerala for expressing its views.
  3. The recommendation of the President was required for the introduction of the Bill in Parliament.
  4. The Bill was piloted in Parliament by the Ministry of Law and Justice.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 3 only

Q13. Consider the following statements comparing the treatment of the creamy layer under OBC reservation with its treatment under Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe reservation: 1. A creamy layer exclusion was mandated for OBC reservation by the Supreme Court in 1992, whereas no corresponding income ceiling has been notified by the Centre for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe reservation. 2. In 2024, a seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court, while permitting States to sub-classify communities within the Scheduled Castes on the basis of empirical data, also recorded that the creamy layer principle is applicable to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. 3. In February 2026, the Supreme Court disposed of petitions seeking objective criteria for excluding the creamy layer among Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, holding that framing such criteria falls exclusively within the competence of the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A creamy layer exclusion was mandated for OBC reservation by the Supreme Court in 1992, whereas no corresponding income ceiling has been notified by the Centre for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe reservation.
  2. In 2024, a seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court, while permitting States to sub-classify communities within the Scheduled Castes on the basis of empirical data, also recorded that the creamy layer principle is applicable to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  3. In February 2026, the Supreme Court disposed of petitions seeking objective criteria for excluding the creamy layer among Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, holding that framing such criteria falls exclusively within the competence of the State Governments.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q14. The creamy layer exclusion for Other Backward Classes is a judicial gloss on which one of the following provisions of the Constitution?

  • A. Article 15(4)
  • B. Article 16(4)
  • C. Article 335
  • D. Article 340

Q15. The Union Government's appeals that were dismissed in the March 2026 creamy layer case had been filed against orders of which one of the following?

  • A. The National Commission for Backward Classes, as affirmed by the High Court
  • B. The Union Public Service Commission, as affirmed by the Central Administrative Tribunal
  • C. The Department of Personnel and Training, as affirmed by the Central Administrative Tribunal
  • D. The Central Administrative Tribunal, as affirmed by the High Court

Q16. In its application seeking clarification of the March 2026 creamy layer judgment, the Centre has identified which one of the following as the earliest year from which already-settled appointments would have to be reopened if the ruling were applied retrospectively?

  • A. 2004
  • B. 2008
  • C. 2012
  • D. 2015

Q17. According to the Supreme Court's March 2026 judgment on OBC creamy layer determination, which one of the following is the principal basis on which a candidate is to be classified as belonging to the creamy layer?

  • A. The aggregate gross annual income of the candidate's parents from all sources taken together
  • B. The wealth held by the candidate's parents above the exemption limit prescribed under the Wealth Act
  • C. The nature of the parents' employment and the category of the posts they hold
  • D. The candidate's own gross annual income in the three consecutive years preceding the examination

Q18. As clarified by the Supreme Court in its March 2026 ruling on creamy layer determination among Other Backward Classes, the 'income/wealth test' is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. The exclusive determinant of creamy layer status, overriding in every case the status and category of the posts held by the parents
  • B. A test requiring income from salary, agriculture and all other sources to be mechanically aggregated against the prescribed annual ceiling
  • C. A test applicable only to the children of Group 'A' and Group 'B' officers of the Central and State Governments and of statutory bodies
  • D. A supplementary criterion applied alongside the status and category of the posts held by the parents, and not the sole determinant

Q19. How many categories of persons or sections are enumerated in the Schedule to the Office Memorandum of 8 September 1993 for determining the creamy layer among Other Backward Classes?

  • A. Four
  • B. Five
  • C. Six
  • D. Eight

Q20. The criteria presently used to identify the creamy layer among Other Backward Classes — covering constitutional and statutory posts, service category, armed forces rank, professions, property and the income/wealth test — are set out in which one of the following?

  • A. The Schedule to the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993
  • B. The Schedule to the Department of Personnel and Training Office Memorandum dated 13 September 2017
  • C. The Schedule to the Department of Personnel and Training Office Memorandum dated 8 September 1993
  • D. The Schedule to the Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act, 2005

Q21. Which one of the following was the first Supreme Court decision to mandate exclusion of the creamy layer while upholding reservation for Other Backward Classes in central civil posts, and what was the strength of the Bench that decided it?

  • A. M. Nagaraj v. Union of India (2006), decided by a five-judge Bench
  • B. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992), decided by a seven-judge Bench
  • C. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992), decided by a nine-judge Bench
  • D. State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (2024), decided by a seven-judge Bench

Q22. Which one of the following issues the Office Memoranda that prescribe, and periodically revise, the criteria for identifying the creamy layer among Other Backward Classes for reservation in central civil posts and services?

  • A. The National Commission for Backward Classes under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • B. The Union Public Service Commission under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
  • C. The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • D. The Department of Personnel and Training under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

Q23. Consider the following statements comparing successive revisions of the creamy layer income ceiling for Other Backward Classes: 1. The ₹2.5 lakh ceiling adopted in 2004 took effect from 9 March 2004, whereas the ₹8 lakh ceiling took effect from 1 September 2017. 2. Unlike the 2004 revision, which was accompanied by a Cabinet decision to modify the rupee criterion in line with the Consumer Price Index every three years, the 2017 revision expressly abandoned that periodic-revision principle. 3. The ceiling fixed in 2017 has not been revised since. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The ₹2.5 lakh ceiling adopted in 2004 took effect from 9 March 2004, whereas the ₹8 lakh ceiling took effect from 1 September 2017.
  2. Unlike the 2004 revision, which was accompanied by a Cabinet decision to modify the rupee criterion in line with the Consumer Price Index every three years, the 2017 revision expressly abandoned that periodic-revision principle.
  3. The ceiling fixed in 2017 has not been revised since.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q24. The following pairs relate the year of revision of the creamy layer gross annual income ceiling for Other Backward Classes to the ceiling then prescribed by the Department of Personnel and Training: 1. 1993 — ₹1 lakh 2. 2004 — ₹2.5 lakh 3. 2013 — ₹4.5 lakh 4. 2017 — ₹8 lakh Which of the above pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

  1. 1993 — ₹1 lakh
  2. 2004 — ₹2.5 lakh
  3. 2013 — ₹4.5 lakh
  4. 2017 — ₹8 lakh
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 3 and 4

Q25. The decision as to when Parliament is to be convened for a session is taken by which one of the following?

  • A. The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
  • B. The Business Advisory Committee of the Lok Sabha, presided over by the Speaker
  • C. The Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs, presided over by the Prime Minister
  • D. The General Purposes Committee of the Rajya Sabha, presided over by the Chairman

Q26. Under the Delimitation Bill, 2026, the Delimitation Commission was to be headed by whom?

  • A. A serving or retired Judge of the Supreme Court, appointed by the central government
  • B. The Chief Election Commissioner, or an Election Commissioner nominated by him
  • C. A retired Chief Justice of a High Court, nominated by the Chief Justice of India
  • D. A serving Judge of the Supreme Court, nominated by a collegium of the Chief Justice of India and two senior-most Judges

Q27. The coordination of Government Business between the two Houses, and the issue of official statements on the commencement and conclusion of a session such as the Monsoon Session, 2026, is the responsibility of which one of the following?

  • A. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
  • B. The Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice
  • C. The Parliament Unit of the Cabinet Secretariat
  • D. The Legislative Section of the Lok Sabha Secretariat

Q28. Which one of the following most precisely describes what prorogation, as distinguished from dissolution, accomplishes?

  • A. It terminates a session without interrupting the continuity of the House
  • B. It terminates the life of the House and extinguishes every item of business then pending before it
  • C. It suspends the sittings of the House indefinitely, the session being revived whenever the Presiding Officer re-convenes it
  • D. It brings a session to a close and simultaneously vacates all Committees constituted during that session

Q29. On the prorogation of a House of Parliament, how many of the following lapse: (i) Bills pending in the House; (ii) business pending before a Parliamentary Committee; (iii) motions pending in the House; (iv) resolutions pending in the House?

  • A. None
  • B. Only one
  • C. Only two
  • D. All four

Q30. Article 85 of the Constitution imposes which one of the following outer limits on the meeting of Parliament?

  • A. Six months shall not intervene between the last sitting in one session and the first sitting of the next
  • B. Each House shall sit for not fewer than one hundred days in every calendar year
  • C. Each House shall be summoned thrice every year, for the Budget, Monsoon and Winter Sessions respectively
  • D. No session shall be permitted to continue for more than six months without being prorogued