International Relations MCQs for UPSC Prelims — February 2026
Q1. The global 90-70-90 strategy to accelerate the elimination of cervical cancer was formally adopted in 2020 by which one of the following?
- A. The United Nations General Assembly
- B. The World Health Assembly of the WHO
- C. The Executive Board of UNICEF
- D. The Governing Body of the World Bank
Q2. Under the WHO Global Strategy, cervical cancer is considered to be 'eliminated as a public health problem' in a country when it achieves which one of the following?
- A. An annual incidence of 4 or fewer new cases per 100,000 women
- B. 90% coverage of HPV vaccination among girls by age 15
- C. 70% screening coverage among women aged 35 and 45
- D. Zero new cases of cervical cancer in a calendar year
Q3. With reference to the UN General Assembly resolution demanding a ceasefire in Gaza adopted in June 2025, consider the following statements:
1. The resolution was adopted, with 149 members voting in favour.
2. India was among the members that abstained rather than voting in favour.
3. The resolution was defeated because a permanent member cast a veto against it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The resolution was adopted, with 149 members voting in favour.
- India was among the members that abstained rather than voting in favour.
- The resolution was defeated because a permanent member cast a veto against it.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q4. Consider the following statements about permanent membership of the UN Security Council:
1. France is a permanent member holding the power of veto.
2. Germany is a permanent member holding the power of veto.
3. China is a permanent member holding the power of veto.
4. India is a permanent member holding the power of veto.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- France is a permanent member holding the power of veto.
- Germany is a permanent member holding the power of veto.
- China is a permanent member holding the power of veto.
- India is a permanent member holding the power of veto.
- A. 1 and 3
- B. 1, 3 and 4
- C. 2 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q5. The mechanism enabling the UN General Assembly to consider a matter and recommend collective measures when the Security Council is paralysed by a permanent member's veto was established under which one of the following?
- A. General Assembly Resolution 377(V) of 1950
- B. Article 51 of the UN Charter
- C. Article 99 of the UN Charter
- D. General Assembly Resolution 2758 of 1971
Q6. Under Article 38(1) of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, the Court is directed to apply how many distinct categories of law and means in deciding disputes submitted to it?
- A. Two
- B. Three
- C. Four
- D. Five
Q7. Which one of the following is widely regarded as the most authoritative statement of the sources of international law?
- A. Article 38 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice
- B. Article 2(4) of the United Nations Charter
- C. The Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969
- D. The Montevideo Convention on the Rights and Duties of States, 1933
Q8. In its 2024 case against Israel before the International Court of Justice, on which one of the following did South Africa primarily found the Court's jurisdiction?
- A. Article IX of the Genocide Convention
- B. Article 2(4) of the UN Charter
- C. The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court
- D. Article 288 of the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea
Q9. With reference to the International Court of Justice proceedings in South Africa v. Israel, consider the following statements:
1. The case was instituted under the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide (1948).
2. South Africa founded the Court's jurisdiction on Article IX of the Genocide Convention.
3. By its Order of 26 January 2024, the Court indicated provisional measures.
4. In January 2024 the Court delivered a final judgment finding that Israel had committed genocide.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- The case was instituted under the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide (1948).
- South Africa founded the Court's jurisdiction on Article IX of the Genocide Convention.
- By its Order of 26 January 2024, the Court indicated provisional measures.
- In January 2024 the Court delivered a final judgment finding that Israel had committed genocide.
- A. 1, 2 and 3
- B. 1 and 4
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 4
Q10. Which one of the following is the only exception to the Article 2(4) prohibition that a state may invoke unilaterally, that is, without prior authorization of the UN Security Council?
- A. The individual or collective right of self-defence under Article 51, in response to an armed attack
- B. Enforcement action ordered under Chapter VII of the UN Charter
- C. Collective measures recommended under the 'Uniting for Peace' resolution
- D. Enforcement action undertaken by a regional arrangement
Q11. Article 2(4) of the United Nations Charter is best described as a provision that:
- A. Prohibits the threat or use of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any state
- B. Outlaws every form of armed conflict, including actions taken in self-defence against an armed attack
- C. Prohibits only formally declared wars of aggression between sovereign states
- D. Bans the use of economic and diplomatic coercion by one state against another
Q12. The February 7, 2026 Joint Statement on the India–U.S. Interim Trade Deal was issued from the U.S. side solely under the authority of which one of the following officials?
- A. U.S. Secretary of State
- B. U.S. Trade Representative (Ambassador Jamieson Greer)
- C. U.S. Secretary of the Treasury
- D. U.S. Secretary of Commerce
Q13. With reference to India's $500 billion procurement commitment to the United States announced under the February 7, 2026 Joint Statement, consider the following categories of U.S. goods:
1. Energy products
2. Coking coal
3. Defence equipment
4. Aircraft and aircraft parts
Which of the above is/are correctly identified as categories explicitly listed in the commitment?
- Energy products
- Coking coal
- Defence equipment
- Aircraft and aircraft parts
- A. 1 and 4 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1, 2 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q14. With reference to the U.S. tariff regime on Indian goods before and after the India–U.S. Joint Statement of February 7, 2026, consider the following statements:
1. The U.S. reciprocal tariff on Indian originating goods was lowered from 25% to 18%.
2. The additional 25% punitive tariff imposed on India for purchases of Russian crude oil was retained under the new framework.
3. India committed to purchase about $500 billion worth of U.S. goods — including energy products, aircraft and aircraft parts, precious metals, technology products and coking coal — over the next five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The U.S. reciprocal tariff on Indian originating goods was lowered from 25% to 18%.
- The additional 25% punitive tariff imposed on India for purchases of Russian crude oil was retained under the new framework.
- India committed to purchase about $500 billion worth of U.S. goods — including energy products, aircraft and aircraft parts, precious metals, technology products and coking coal — over the next five years.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q15. Which one of the following Union Ministries leads, on the Indian side, the negotiation and operationalisation of the India–U.S. Interim Bilateral Trade Agreement (Phase 1) announced through the Joint Statement of February 7, 2026?
- A. Ministry of External Affairs
- B. Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue)
- C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry (Department of Commerce)
- D. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Q16. As part of its largest-ever FTA expansion aligned with the Viksit Bharat vision, consider the following agreements:
1. India–UK CETA
2. India–Oman CEPA
3. India–New Zealand FTA
4. India–Sri Lanka FTA
Which of the above is/are correctly identified as concluded or signed by India during FY 2025-26?
- India–UK CETA
- India–Oman CEPA
- India–New Zealand FTA
- India–Sri Lanka FTA
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 2 and 4 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q17. Which one of the following is the nodal department responsible for negotiating India's Free Trade Agreements?
- A. The Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
- C. The Ministry of External Affairs
- D. NITI Aayog
Q18. With reference to India's standing in the diversity of trade partnerships, consider the following statements:
1. India ranks third among Global South economies on the diversity index of trade partnerships.
2. India's diversity index score is higher than that of all Global North countries.
3. This ranking is drawn from a report published by the World Trade Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- India ranks third among Global South economies on the diversity index of trade partnerships.
- India's diversity index score is higher than that of all Global North countries.
- This ranking is drawn from a report published by the World Trade Organization.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q19. In the context of India's ongoing FTA negotiations, the "Terms of Reference (ToR)", such as the one signed with Israel in November 2025, is best described as which one of the following?
- A. A framework establishing the scope and structure of the negotiations to be undertaken
- B. The final, legally binding text of the concluded trade agreement
- C. A ratified schedule of tariff concessions already exchanged by the two sides
- D. A binding dispute-settlement ruling issued under an existing agreement
Q20. With reference to India's recently concluded trade agreements, consider the following statements:
1. The India–Oman CEPA was signed in December 2025.
2. The India–New Zealand FTA was announced in December 2025.
3. Under the India–Oman CEPA, Oman for the first time offered Mode 4 commitments on the temporary movement of professionals.
4. The India–New Zealand FTA is described as one of India's longest-negotiated trade agreements.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
- The India–Oman CEPA was signed in December 2025.
- The India–New Zealand FTA was announced in December 2025.
- Under the India–Oman CEPA, Oman for the first time offered Mode 4 commitments on the temporary movement of professionals.
- The India–New Zealand FTA is described as one of India's longest-negotiated trade agreements.
- A. 1 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 4 only
- D. 1 and 4 only
Q21. The negotiation of India's recent Free Trade Agreements, such as those with Oman and New Zealand, is operationalised on India's behalf by which one of the following?
- A. The Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B. The Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
- C. The Ministry of External Affairs
- D. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
Q22. With reference to the chronology of India's trade agreements, consider the following statements:
1. The India–Sri Lanka FTA was signed earlier than the India–ASEAN Trade in Goods Agreement came into effect.
2. The India–UAE CEPA and the India–Australia ECTA were both concluded in 2022.
3. The India–Australia ECTA preceded the India–Sri Lanka FTA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The India–Sri Lanka FTA was signed earlier than the India–ASEAN Trade in Goods Agreement came into effect.
- The India–UAE CEPA and the India–Australia ECTA were both concluded in 2022.
- The India–Australia ECTA preceded the India–Sri Lanka FTA.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q23. Which one of the following is regarded as India's first major modern Free Trade Agreement?
- A. India–Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement
- B. India–ASEAN Trade in Goods Agreement
- C. India–Thailand Free Trade Agreement
- D. India–Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
Q24. With reference to the India–UK CETA, consider the following statements:
1. Its negotiations were concluded on 6 May 2025, whereas the agreement was formally signed later, on 24 July 2025.
2. It was signed in London by Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal and the UK Secretary of State for Business and Trade, Jonathan Reynolds.
3. The agreement entered into force on the very day it was signed in July 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Its negotiations were concluded on 6 May 2025, whereas the agreement was formally signed later, on 24 July 2025.
- It was signed in London by Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal and the UK Secretary of State for Business and Trade, Jonathan Reynolds.
- The agreement entered into force on the very day it was signed in July 2025.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q25. The India–UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA) was concluded following how many rounds of negotiations?
- A. 12 rounds
- B. 13 rounds
- C. 14 rounds
- D. 16 rounds
Q26. At which of the following events were negotiations on the India–European Union Free Trade Agreement concluded?
- A. The 16th India–EU Summit held in New Delhi on 27 January 2026
- B. The 16th India–EU Summit held in Brussels on 27 January 2026
- C. The 15th India–EU Summit held in New Delhi in 2025
- D. The relaunch meeting of June 2022 held in Brussels
Q27. In the context of India's recent trade diplomacy, the deal popularly described as the "Mother of All Deals" refers to which one of the following?
- A. The India–European Union Free Trade Agreement concluded in January 2026
- B. The India–United Kingdom Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement signed in July 2025
- C. The India–GCC comprehensive FTA whose negotiations were launched in February 2026
- D. The wholly renegotiated India–ASEAN Trade in Goods Agreement covering all sectors without exception
Q28. The estimate of 1,23,907 new cervical cancer cases in India in 2022 is derived from the GLOBOCAN database, which is compiled by which agency?
- A. The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC), the cancer agency of WHO
- B. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB)
- C. The ICMR–National Centre for Disease Informatics and Research
- D. The WHO Regional Office for South-East Asia (SEARO)
Q29. With reference to the WHO Global Strategy to Accelerate the Elimination of Cervical Cancer, consider the following statements:
1. It was adopted by the World Health Assembly in 2020.
2. Elimination as a public health problem is defined as an incidence below 4 per 100,000 women.
3. The 90-70-90 targets are set to be achieved by the year 2030.
4. The strategy mandates a uniform two-dose HPV schedule in all member states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- It was adopted by the World Health Assembly in 2020.
- Elimination as a public health problem is defined as an incidence below 4 per 100,000 women.
- The 90-70-90 targets are set to be achieved by the year 2030.
- The strategy mandates a uniform two-dose HPV schedule in all member states.
- A. 1, 2 and 3
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q30. The 1969 safeguards agreement that brought Pakistan's KANUPP reactor under IAEA monitoring was concluded between how many parties?
- A. Two
- B. Three
- C. Four
- D. Five