International Relations MCQs for UPSC Prelims — September 2026

Q1. The additional 25 per cent duty on Indian goods over India's purchases of Russian crude, which took the total United States tariff on Indian goods to 50 per cent from 27 August 2025, was imposed through which one of the following instruments?

  • A. A determination by the Office of the United States Trade Representative under Section 301 of the Trade Act
  • B. An executive order signed by the President of the United States
  • C. A rule notified by the Bureau of Industry and Security of the US Department of Commerce
  • D. A joint resolution passed by both chambers of the United States Congress

Q2. In August 2026, Russia's seaborne gasoline imports surged to a record level of approximately how many barrels per day?

  • A. 60,000 barrels per day
  • B. 125,000 barrels per day
  • C. 250,000 barrels per day
  • D. 400,000 barrels per day

Q3. With reference to the impact of Ukrainian drone strikes on Russia's refining sector in July-August 2026, consider the following statements: 1. The refineries affected had a combined processing capacity of more than 83 million tonnes per year. 2. The affected refineries accounted for roughly one-quarter of Russia's total oil refining capacity. 3. The affected refineries together produced more than 30 per cent of Russia's gasoline. 4. Russian oil refining runs rose to a 20-year high of 3.9 million barrels per day in July 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The refineries affected had a combined processing capacity of more than 83 million tonnes per year.
  2. The affected refineries accounted for roughly one-quarter of Russia's total oil refining capacity.
  3. The affected refineries together produced more than 30 per cent of Russia's gasoline.
  4. Russian oil refining runs rose to a 20-year high of 3.9 million barrels per day in July 2026.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 4 only
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 2 and 4

Q4. Following the imposition of Western sanctions on Russia, by approximately what percentage did India's crude oil imports from Russia increase between 2021-22 and 2022-23?

  • A. About 62 per cent
  • B. About 112 per cent
  • C. About 162 per cent
  • D. About 212 per cent

Q5. The Green Climate Fund, with its Secretariat at Songdo in the Republic of Korea, is governed by a Board of country representatives numbering how many?

  • A. 12 members, drawn equally from developed and developing countries
  • B. 24 members, drawn equally from developed and developing countries
  • C. 32 members, with a majority reserved for developing countries
  • D. 48 members, one nominated by each contributing country

Q6. Among the following components of the international climate regime, which one came into existence earliest?

  • A. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change, set up jointly by UNEP and the World Meteorological Organization
  • B. The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, adopted at the Earth Summit held at Rio de Janeiro
  • C. The Kyoto Protocol, adopted as a protocol to the parent climate change convention
  • D. The Green Climate Fund, created by the parties to the convention under the Cancun Agreements

Q7. In January 2026 a White House memorandum named 31 United Nations entities from which the United States would cease participation or funding, to the extent permitted by law. Consider the following entities: 1. The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change 2. The International Atomic Energy Agency 3. UN-Habitat 4. The UN Conference on Trade and Development Which of the above is/are correctly identified as figuring in that list?

  1. The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change
  2. The International Atomic Energy Agency
  3. UN-Habitat
  4. The UN Conference on Trade and Development
  • A. 1, 3 and 4
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 3 and 4 only

Q8. With reference to the disengagement of the United States from international climate arrangements, consider the following: 1. It notified the UN Secretary-General of withdrawal from the Paris Agreement in January 2025, and that withdrawal took effect in January 2026. 2. An earlier withdrawal by it from the Paris Agreement had taken effect in November 2020, and it accepted the Agreement again in February 2021. 3. The announcement of its withdrawal from the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change itself came in January 2026. 4. Its withdrawal from the Paris Agreement became effective three months after the depositary received the notification. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It notified the UN Secretary-General of withdrawal from the Paris Agreement in January 2025, and that withdrawal took effect in January 2026.
  2. An earlier withdrawal by it from the Paris Agreement had taken effect in November 2020, and it accepted the Agreement again in February 2021.
  3. The announcement of its withdrawal from the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change itself came in January 2026.
  4. Its withdrawal from the Paris Agreement became effective three months after the depositary received the notification.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 2 and 4

Q9. In UNEP's 'Limiting Overshoot' assessment, the 'overshoot, peak and decline' pathway is best described as which one of the following?

  • A. Immediate and sustained cuts to greenhouse gases including methane on the road to net zero, followed by sustained net-negative emissions that bring temperatures back down
  • B. Permitting emissions to peak by 2035 and decline thereafter, in a manner that keeps warming below the 1.5°C mark at all times without recourse to carbon removals
  • C. Stabilising warming at whatever peak level is reached and adapting to it permanently, with removals used only to offset residual aviation and shipping emissions
  • D. Deploying solar radiation management to cap the peak, with emissions thereafter declining at rates determined solely by each Party's own contribution

Q10. The UNEP Emissions Gap Report titled 'Off Target', assessed in Nairobi in November 2025, was which edition in that report series?

  • A. The 10th edition
  • B. The 13th edition
  • C. The 16th edition
  • D. The 21st edition

Q11. The COP30 outcome established a new work programme to scrutinise whether global investment and funding flows are consistent with the Paris Agreement's objectives. This work programme is anchored in which provision of the Agreement?

  • A. Article 6, dealing with voluntary cooperative approaches and market mechanisms
  • B. Article 8, dealing with loss and damage associated with adverse climate impacts
  • C. Article 9, dealing with the provision of resources by developed country Parties
  • D. Article 14, dealing with the periodic global stocktake of collective progress

Q12. With reference to the structure of the Paris Agreement, consider the following: 1. Every Party is required to prepare, communicate and maintain successive nationally determined contributions, which are to be communicated at five-yearly intervals. 2. Although adopted in December 2015, it entered into force in 2016, less than a year after its adoption. 3. It fixes uniform, legally binding quantified emission-reduction targets for developed country Parties, listed in an annex to the Agreement itself. 4. A Party may withdraw only after three years from the date the Agreement enters into force for it, and such withdrawal takes effect one year after the depositary receives the notification. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Every Party is required to prepare, communicate and maintain successive nationally determined contributions, which are to be communicated at five-yearly intervals.
  2. Although adopted in December 2015, it entered into force in 2016, less than a year after its adoption.
  3. It fixes uniform, legally binding quantified emission-reduction targets for developed country Parties, listed in an annex to the Agreement itself.
  4. A Party may withdraw only after three years from the date the Agreement enters into force for it, and such withdrawal takes effect one year after the depositary receives the notification.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q13. Under the Paris Agreement, the foremost long-term temperature goal, as set out in Article 2.1(a), is expressed in which one of the following ways?

  • A. Holding the rise in global average temperature to below 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels, treating 2°C as a permitted temporary ceiling
  • B. Holding the rise in global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels, while pursuing efforts to limit it to 1.5°C
  • C. Holding the rise in global average temperature to well below 2°C above 1990 levels, while pursuing efforts to limit it to 1.5°C
  • D. Holding the rise in global average temperature to below 2°C above pre-industrial levels, the 1.5°C effort binding only on developed country Parties

Q14. Consider the following statements regarding maritime zones under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea and India's Maritime Zones Act, 1976: 1. In the contiguous zone the coastal State may exercise the control necessary to prevent infringement of its customs, fiscal, immigration or sanitary laws and regulations. 2. The exclusive economic zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. 3. The continental shelf of a coastal State may extend up to the outer edge of the continental margin even where that edge lies beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines. 4. The limit of India's contiguous zone may be altered by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette without any approval by Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. In the contiguous zone the coastal State may exercise the control necessary to prevent infringement of its customs, fiscal, immigration or sanitary laws and regulations.
  2. The exclusive economic zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.
  3. The continental shelf of a coastal State may extend up to the outer edge of the continental margin even where that edge lies beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines.
  4. The limit of India's contiguous zone may be altered by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette without any approval by Parliament.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q15. Under the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and Other Maritime Zones Act, 1976, which one of the following correctly describes the outer limit of India's contiguous zone?

  • A. A line every point of which is at a distance of twenty-four nautical miles from the nearest point of the appropriate baseline
  • B. A line every point of which is at a distance of twenty-four nautical miles from the nearest point of the outer limit of the territorial waters
  • C. A line every point of which is at a distance of two hundred nautical miles from the nearest point of the appropriate baseline
  • D. A line every point of which is at a distance of twelve nautical miles from the nearest point of the low-water line along the coast

Q16. A bill that has been passed by both chambers of the U.S. Congress and presented to the President, who neither signs nor returns it while Congress remains in session, becomes law automatically on the expiry of how many days?

  • A. Seven days
  • B. Ten days
  • C. Fourteen days
  • D. Thirty days

Q17. As of early September 2026 the Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act had cleared only one chamber of the U.S. Congress. Assuming it is later passed by the other chamber in identical form but is returned unsigned with objections by the President, it could still become law in which one of the following ways?

  • A. Ratification of the measure by the legislatures of three-fourths of the States
  • B. Re-passage by a simple majority in both chambers after a ten-day interval
  • C. Certification of a concurrent resolution of Congress by the Supreme Court
  • D. Re-passage by a two-thirds vote in each of the House of Representatives and the Senate

Q18. Consider the following statements comparing the tariff instruments contained in the Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026: 1. The maximum secondary tariff the Bill authorises against third countries buying Russian energy was scaled down to 100 per cent from the 500 per cent level originally canvassed for such countries. 2. The secondary tariff is triggered by fresh purchases of Russian oil or gas made after the Bill's enactment, whereas goods imported into the United States from Russia itself face a far higher headline rate. 3. A country is exempt from the secondary tariff if it draws less than 50 per cent of its natural gas from Russia and is reducing such imports. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The maximum secondary tariff the Bill authorises against third countries buying Russian energy was scaled down to 100 per cent from the 500 per cent level originally canvassed for such countries.
  2. The secondary tariff is triggered by fresh purchases of Russian oil or gas made after the Bill's enactment, whereas goods imported into the United States from Russia itself face a far higher headline rate.
  3. A country is exempt from the secondary tariff if it draws less than 50 per cent of its natural gas from Russia and is reducing such imports.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q19. With reference to the Lindsey O. Graham Sanctioning Russia and Iran Act of 2026, which of the following are correctly identified? 1. China, India, Azerbaijan, Hungary and Slovakia — the countries presently placed among the five largest importers of Russian oil and gas. 2. The United States Department of Energy — the authority required to recalculate the list of the top five purchasers of Russian oil and gas every 180 days. 3. 500 per cent — the tariff rate the Bill would apply to United States imports originating from Russia itself. 4. The Russian 'shadow fleet' of sanctions-evading tankers — a category expressly carved out and exempted from the Bill's sanctions. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. China, India, Azerbaijan, Hungary and Slovakia — the countries presently placed among the five largest importers of Russian oil and gas.
  2. The United States Department of Energy — the authority required to recalculate the list of the top five purchasers of Russian oil and gas every 180 days.
  3. 500 per cent — the tariff rate the Bill would apply to United States imports originating from Russia itself.
  4. The Russian 'shadow fleet' of sanctions-evading tankers — a category expressly carved out and exempted from the Bill's sanctions.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q20. In the context of India's crude oil procurement after February 2022, the strategy described as 'energy diversification' is best understood as which one of the following?

  • A. Substituting imported crude with expanded domestic production from the Krishna-Godavari and Mumbai High fields to cut import dependence
  • B. Shifting the fuel mix of Indian refineries away from crude oil towards imported liquefied natural gas on long-term contracts
  • C. Redirecting a large share of crude purchases towards discounted Russian barrels in order to lower the oil import bill while retaining traditional suppliers
  • D. Enlarging the strategic petroleum reserve caverns so that a longer period of consumption is covered by stored crude

Q21. Which of the following are correctly identified with respect to India's sourcing of crude oil from Russia? 1. About 2 per cent — the share of Russia in India's crude oil imports before the Russia–Ukraine conflict began in February 2022. 2. About 56 per cent — the share of Russian crude in India's total crude imports in July 2026, which was also a record in volume terms. 3. 8.96 million metric tonnes in May 2026, up from 4.54 million metric tonnes in January 2026 — the near-doubling of India's Russian crude intake within that period. 4. Azerbaijan — the country that displaced Russia as India's single largest supplier of crude oil in August 2026. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. About 2 per cent — the share of Russia in India's crude oil imports before the Russia–Ukraine conflict began in February 2022.
  2. About 56 per cent — the share of Russian crude in India's total crude imports in July 2026, which was also a record in volume terms.
  3. 8.96 million metric tonnes in May 2026, up from 4.54 million metric tonnes in January 2026 — the near-doubling of India's Russian crude intake within that period.
  4. Azerbaijan — the country that displaced Russia as India's single largest supplier of crude oil in August 2026.
  • A. 1 and 4 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q22. With reference to the U.S. Section 301 forced-labour measures of 2026 and the Section 122 surcharge that preceded them, consider the following statements: 1. A Section 122 surcharge may not exceed 15 per cent ad valorem and may not remain in force beyond 150 days unless extended by an Act of Congress. 2. The Section 301 forced-labour action covered 60 economies, and the duty finally notified on India was lower than the rate that had been proposed for India in June 2026. 3. The Section 301 duty applies to the entire basket of India's merchandise exports to the United States, leaving no export category outside its scope. 4. Section 122 is invoked on the ground of large and serious balance-of-payments deficits, whereas the 2026 Section 301 action rested on the enforcement of prohibitions on goods made with forced labour. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A Section 122 surcharge may not exceed 15 per cent ad valorem and may not remain in force beyond 150 days unless extended by an Act of Congress.
  2. The Section 301 forced-labour action covered 60 economies, and the duty finally notified on India was lower than the rate that had been proposed for India in June 2026.
  3. The Section 301 duty applies to the entire basket of India's merchandise exports to the United States, leaving no export category outside its scope.
  4. Section 122 is invoked on the ground of large and serious balance-of-payments deficits, whereas the 2026 Section 301 action rested on the enforcement of prohibitions on goods made with forced labour.
  • A. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q23. The temporary 10 per cent ad valorem import surcharge applied by the United States to goods from all its trading partners with effect from 20 February 2026 — a levy that lapsed before the forced-labour duty on India took effect — was imposed under which one of the following authorities?

  • A. Section 232 of the U.S. Trade Expansion Act of 1962
  • B. Section 201 of the U.S. Trade Act of 1974
  • C. Section 122 of the U.S. Trade Act of 1974
  • D. Section 338 of the U.S. Tariff Act of 1930

Q24. With reference to Syria's engagement with the IAEA following the change of government in Damascus, consider the following: 1. A visit by the IAEA Director General to Damascus in June 2025, after which inspectors obtained immediate and unrestricted access to a site relevant to clarifying past nuclear activities 2. A declaration by Syria in July 2026 of nuclear material at a location it had not previously declared 3. A visit by the IAEA Director General to the Deir el-Zour site in August 2026 to observe excavation work being carried out there 4. Syria's accession to the NPT for the first time, which brought it under an IAEA comprehensive safeguards agreement Which of the above is/are correctly identified as steps in Syria's post-Assad cooperation with the Agency?

  1. A visit by the IAEA Director General to Damascus in June 2025, after which inspectors obtained immediate and unrestricted access to a site relevant to clarifying past nuclear activities
  2. A declaration by Syria in July 2026 of nuclear material at a location it had not previously declared
  3. A visit by the IAEA Director General to the Deir el-Zour site in August 2026 to observe excavation work being carried out there
  4. Syria's accession to the NPT for the first time, which brought it under an IAEA comprehensive safeguards agreement
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q25. The clandestine black-market network run by A.Q. Khan is documented to have transferred uranium enrichment technology or equipment to how many States?

  • A. One
  • B. Two
  • C. Three
  • D. Four

Q26. India's delegation to the annual General Conference of the IAEA at Vienna is headed by which one of the following?

  • A. The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board, through its Chairman, as the country's nuclear safety regulator
  • B. The Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited, through its Chairman and Managing Director
  • C. The Ministry of External Affairs, through the head of its Disarmament and International Security Affairs Division
  • D. The Atomic Energy Commission, through its Chairman, who is also Secretary, Department of Atomic Energy

Q27. Which one of the following is the principal feature that distinguishes the India-specific safeguards arrangement with the IAEA from the safeguards accepted by a non-nuclear-weapon State party to the NPT?

  • A. It applies only to facilities that India voluntarily designates as civilian, India alone deciding which facilities are of military significance
  • B. It applies to all source and special fissionable material in all peaceful nuclear activities carried out on Indian territory
  • C. It obliges India to bring every newly constructed power reactor under safeguards from the date on which it is commissioned
  • D. It requires India to place its heavy water plants and reprocessing facilities under safeguards without exception, including those serving strategic programmes

Q28. Where the IAEA finds a non-nuclear-weapon State party to the NPT to be in non-compliance with its safeguards obligations, the matter may be taken forward for enforcement to which one of the following bodies?

  • A. The First Committee of the UN General Assembly, which handles disarmament questions
  • B. The Conference on Disarmament at Geneva, the standing multilateral negotiating forum
  • C. The UN Security Council, which may follow up with diplomatic pressure or sanctions
  • D. The Executive Council of the OPCW at The Hague, which handles treaty violation cases

Q29. The Director General of the International Atomic Energy Agency is appointed by which one of the following?

  • A. The General Conference, the plenary organ composed of all member States
  • B. The Board of Governors, the organ that also approves safeguards agreements
  • C. The UN Secretary-General, acting on the advice of the Security Council
  • D. The UN General Assembly, acting on the recommendation of ECOSOC

Q30. The IAEA's long-standing finding against Syria rested partly on its failure to provide the Agency with the required 'design information'. In safeguards practice, this term refers to which one of the following?

  • A. Engineering blueprints of nuclear weapon components, whose transfer between States is barred by the Treaty
  • B. The annual operating and maintenance schedule of a reactor, filed with the Agency after commissioning begins
  • C. Technical specifications of dual-use equipment, notified to the Agency by supplier States in advance of export
  • D. Particulars of a facility's layout, capacity and nuclear material flows, filed so that safeguards can be designed and applied to it