Polity MCQs for UPSC Prelims

Q1. Modified UDAN combines Centre–State/UT MoUs with a Challenge Mode Portal for aerodrome development. In this context, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. MoUs under which the Centre and a State both commit resources and responsibilities for aerodrome development are an instance of cooperative federalism.
  2. Allocating central support among States through a fixed formula based on population and area is what makes the challenge mode an instance of competitive federalism.
  3. Under a challenge-mode process, States' proposals compete with each other, and support goes to those judged better rather than being spread automatically across all States.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q2. With reference to the constitutional and statutory framework for developing hydro and pumped storage projects in India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 'Water storage and water power' fall in the State List, subject to the Union's power over inter-State rivers to the extent declared by Parliament.
  2. Under the Electricity Act, 2003, a hydro-generating scheme above a capital-cost threshold notified by the Central Government requires the concurrence of the Central Electricity Authority.
  3. While concurring with a hydro scheme, the Central Electricity Authority must consider whether the proposed river-works will prejudice the best ultimate development of the river.
  4. Because pumped storage serves the national grid, State governments have no role in allotting sites for such projects.
  • A. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q3. With reference to the constitutional and statutory framework for developing hydro and pumped storage projects in India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 'Water storage and water power' fall in the State List, subject to the Union's power over inter-State rivers to the extent declared by Parliament.
  2. Under the Electricity Act, 2003, a hydro-generating scheme above a capital-cost threshold notified by the Central Government requires the concurrence of the Central Electricity Authority.
  3. While concurring with a hydro scheme, the Central Electricity Authority must consider whether the proposed river-works will prejudice the best ultimate development of the river.
  4. Because pumped storage serves the national grid, State governments have no role in allotting sites for such projects.
  • A. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q4. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Once India and New Zealand signed their Free Trade Agreement in April 2026, both countries were bound to apply its preferential tariffs from that date.
  2. In India, the Union executive exercises the power to enter into treaties, and parliamentary legislation is needed only where implementing a treaty requires a change in domestic law.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q5. With reference to the making and implementation of international trade agreements by India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Because the executive power of the Union extends to matters on which Parliament can legislate, the Union Government can enter into a trade agreement without prior approval of Parliament.
  2. Parliament can make a law to implement an international agreement even if the subject of that law falls in the State List.
  3. A trade agreement signed by India binds it to apply the agreed preferential tariffs from the date of signature, whatever entry-into-force date the agreement itself specifies.
  • A. 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q6. With reference to the Legal Metrology Act, 2009, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Central Government may delegate powers of the Director of Legal Metrology to a State's Controller, but only with the consent of that State Government.
  2. Units of weight and measure under the Act follow the metric system based on the International System of Units.
  3. The Act does not apply to weights or measures manufactured exclusively for export.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Under the Legal Metrology Act, 2009, legal metrology officers are appointed by the Central Government as well as by the State Governments.
  2. The Act assigns powers relating to inter-State trade and commerce to officers under a Director appointed by the Centre, and powers relating to intra-State trade and commerce to officers under a Controller appointed by the State.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q8. Consider the following assertion: Even though the Chief Justice of India declined to meet political leaders over their grievances, persons detained for peaceful protest are not left without a judicial remedy. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

  1. The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls is vested in the Election Commission.
  2. The Supreme Court has the power to issue writs, including in the nature of habeas corpus, for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  3. The right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended except as otherwise provided by the Constitution.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 3 only

Q9. With reference to the 'Restatement of Values of Judicial Life' (1997), consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A judge's breach of the Restatement is a ground on which the Supreme Court can itself remove that judge from office.
  2. The Restatement was adopted by the Supreme Court at its own Full Court meeting rather than enacted by Parliament.
  3. An 'in-house procedure' was adopted for taking remedial action against judges who do not follow accepted values of judicial life.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q10. With reference to the constitutional provisions that insulate the legislature and the judiciary from each other, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A State Legislature may discuss the conduct of a High Court judge in the discharge of duties once a motion for that judge's removal has been moved in it.
  2. The validity of proceedings in Parliament cannot be called in question in a court on the ground of an alleged irregularity of procedure.
  3. A similar bar protects proceedings in a State Legislature against challenge on the ground of an alleged irregularity of procedure.
  4. An officer of Parliament vested with powers to maintain order in the House is not subject to the jurisdiction of any court for the exercise of those powers.
  • A. 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Q11. With reference to the panel laid down by the Supreme Court in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) and the panel under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, for selecting the CEC and ECs, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Both panels include the Prime Minister and the Leader of the Opposition (or leader of the largest Opposition party) in the Lok Sabha.
  2. The 2023 Act kept the Chief Justice of India on the panel but replaced the Leader of the Opposition with a Union Cabinet Minister.
  3. Members drawn from the government of the day form a majority of the panel under the 2023 Act, which was not so under the panel laid down by the Court.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q12. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. An Election Commissioner other than the Chief Election Commissioner has weaker constitutional security of tenure than the Chief Election Commissioner.
  2. An Election Commissioner other than the Chief Election Commissioner can be removed on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner, without the special-majority parliamentary process needed to remove the Chief Election Commissioner.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q13. With reference to the constitutional safeguards available to the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The CEC can be removed by an order of the President only after each House of Parliament presents an address, passed by a special majority, on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
  2. The conditions of service of the CEC cannot be varied to the CEC's disadvantage after appointment.
  3. The other Election Commissioners enjoy the same constitutional protection against adverse variation of their service conditions after appointment as the CEC.
  4. The Supreme Court may itself remove the CEC from office if it finds misconduct while hearing a writ petition against the Election Commission.
  • A. 1 and 4 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Q14. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. The Constitution of India adopts a rigid separation of powers under which the executive is kept wholly apart from the legislature.
  2. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q15. With reference to the separation of powers under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Because the separation of powers forms part of the basic structure, a constitutional amendment that strips the courts of jurisdiction can be tested against it and struck down.
  2. A court cannot strike down a law merely because the law fails to give effect to the direction contained in Article 50.
  3. Article 50 speaks only of separating the judiciary from the executive in the public services, and is silent about the legislature.
  • A. 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q16. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Article 41 of the Constitution can be enforced in a court to compel the State to meet the cost of professional education for every student who seeks it.
  2. Article 21A leaves it to the State to determine, by law, the manner in which free and compulsory education is provided to children aged six to fourteen.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q17. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. A student's claim to affordable fees in a private engineering college cannot be founded directly on Article 21A of the Constitution.
  2. Article 21A was not part of the Constitution as originally adopted and was inserted later by a constitutional amendment.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q18. Consider the following statements about Article 29(2) of the Constitution of India: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. It bars denial of admission on grounds only of religion, race, caste or language in an educational institution that receives aid out of State funds.
  2. It extends the same bar to a private institution that is neither maintained by the State nor receives any aid out of State funds.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. Both 1 and 2
  • D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q19. With reference to the sessions of Parliament under Article 85 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The President may dissolve the House of the People, but Article 85 confers no power to dissolve the Council of States.
  2. The six-month limit in Article 85 is counted from the date of prorogation of one session to the date on which the next session commences.
  3. The practice of holding three sessions a year, namely Budget, Monsoon and Winter, is a requirement laid down in the Constitution.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q20. Consider the following assertion: 'Enlarging the Lok Sabha without changing how Parliament functions may weaken each MP's ability to speak for constituents on the floor of the House.' Which of the following statements support the above assertion?

  1. The Constitution does not guarantee any minimum number of sitting days for Parliament in a year.
  2. The number of questions that can be listed for oral answer on a single day is capped, irrespective of the size of the House.
  3. Enlarging the House would reduce the average number of electors in each constituency.
  4. Seats are allotted among States so that the ratio of seats to population is, so far as practicable, uniform.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q21. With reference to the questions that Members of Parliament may put to Ministers, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A starred question is answered orally on the floor, and members other than the questioner may also ask follow-up questions.
  2. The reply to an unstarred question is placed on the table of the House instead of being given orally.
  3. A question at a notice shorter than the normal period can be asked only if the presiding officer allows it.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q22. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. How many days Parliament sits in a year is, in practice, determined by the Union government of the day.
  2. The President's power under Article 85 to summon the Houses is exercised in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers, and the Constitution prescribes no minimum number of sitting days.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q23. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Article 81 requires Lok Sabha seats to be allotted to States so that the ratio between a State's seats and its population is, so far as practicable, the same for all States.
  2. Article 81 suspends this ratio requirement for every State until the relevant figures of the first Census taken after 2026 are published.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q24. With reference to the delimitation of Lok Sabha constituencies in India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The body that readjusts constituencies derives its existence from a law made by Parliament and not directly from the Constitution.
  2. Like the Election Commission, the Delimitation Commission is a permanent body that functions continuously between two Censuses.
  3. The Constitution bars courts from questioning the validity of a law relating to the delimitation of constituencies made under Article 327 or Article 328.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q25. With reference to the freeze on delimitation provided in the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The freeze of the inter-State allocation of Lok Sabha seats on the 1971 Census did not prevent constituency boundaries within a State from being redrawn on the basis of a later Census.
  2. Under the present constitutional text, both the inter-State allocation of Lok Sabha seats and the division of each State into constituencies are pegged to the 2001 Census.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. Both 1 and 2
  • D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q26. With reference to the readjustment of Lok Sabha seats under Article 82 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A readjustment does not affect representation in the House of the People until the dissolution of the House then in existence.
  2. Until a readjustment takes effect, elections to the House may be held on the basis of the territorial constituencies that existed before it.
  3. Article 82 governs only the allocation of seats among States, while the division of each State into constituencies lies wholly outside it.
  4. The authority that carries out the readjustment is named in Article 82 itself rather than being left to a law made by Parliament.
  • A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • D. 2 and 4 only

Q27. Consider the following statements: Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. The National Green Tribunal is required under its parent statute to apply the polluter-pays principle, along with the precautionary principle and sustainable development, while deciding cases.
  2. Decisions of the National Green Tribunal are final, and no appeal against them lies before any court.
  • A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Q28. Several units that manufactured a chrome-tanning chemical were shut down by the State Pollution Control Board for violating hazardous-waste rules. Years later, environmental compensation was levied on them for the contamination caused by their waste. In the light of the polluter-pays principle as applied in India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The closure of a unit does not extinguish its liability for environmental damage caused by its past operations.
  2. Levying compensation for past violations serves, in part, to ensure that violating environmental norms does not turn out to be profitable.
  3. The polluter's liability extends to the cost of restoring the damaged environment and is not limited only to compensating affected persons.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q29. Consider the following facts: The National Green Tribunal took up a matter on its own on the basis of a newspaper report about hexavalent chromium in groundwater, and no application was filed by any person. It recorded that the report raised substantial issues of compliance with environmental norms, issued notices to fourteen authorities including the State Government, the National Mission for Clean Ganga and a medical institute, and asked them to file affidavits before the next hearing. Consider the following inferences: Which of the inferences given above can validly be drawn?

  1. Naming a medical institute as a respondent shows that the Tribunal has assumed jurisdiction over cases of medical negligence.
  2. The Tribunal can continue with the matter even if no affected resident ever joins the proceedings as a party.
  3. Every authority served with notice has thereby been held responsible for causing the contamination.
  4. By calling for affidavits before passing final orders, the Tribunal is giving the authorities an opportunity to be heard.
  • A. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q30. With reference to the power of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) to take up matters on its own (suo motu), consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The NGT may start proceedings without any application when a civil dispute raises a substantial question relating to environment under the enactments listed in Schedule I of its Act.
  2. Once acting suo motu, the NGT may take up any question of public health, even one unconnected with the enactments listed in Schedule I of its Act.
  3. The suo motu power is expressly conferred by a provision of the NGT Act, a position the Union Government itself argued before the Supreme Court.
  • A. 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 1 only