Polity MCQs for UPSC Prelims — April 2026

Q1. With reference to the mandate of the Indian Coast Guard, consider the following functions. Which of the above is/are correctly identified as functions of the Indian Coast Guard?

  1. Protection of the marine environment, including oil-spill response
  2. Coordination of maritime search and rescue in India's maritime zones
  3. Production of official Electronic Navigational Charts for seagoing vessels
  4. Enforcement of maritime law within the Exclusive Economic Zone
  • A. 1, 2 and 4
  • B. 1 and 3
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. Consider the following statements comparing the criminal law on defamation under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023: 1. Defamation was Section 499 under the IPC, 1860 and is now placed in Section 356 under the BNS, 2023. 2. The BNS, 2023 introduced community service as a new mode of punishment for defamation, which was not available under the IPC. 3. The BNS, 2023 retained the same section number, 499, as the IPC for the offence of defamation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Defamation was Section 499 under the IPC, 1860 and is now placed in Section 356 under the BNS, 2023.
  2. The BNS, 2023 introduced community service as a new mode of punishment for defamation, which was not available under the IPC.
  3. The BNS, 2023 retained the same section number, 499, as the IPC for the offence of defamation.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. In such a defamation suit, the accused's right to reputation is protected through defamation being a permissible restriction on free speech. How many grounds of reasonable restriction on the freedom of speech and expression are enumerated in Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India?

  • A. Six
  • B. Seven
  • C. Eight
  • D. Nine

Q4. The defamation suit in which 'digital vigilantism' was judicially discussed engages India's reformed criminal law on defamation. Consider the following statements about the current legal position: 1. Defamation is placed in Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. 2. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860. 3. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 came into force on 1 July 2024. 4. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 defamation is a purely civil wrong carrying no criminal liability. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Defamation is placed in Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
  2. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
  3. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 came into force on 1 July 2024.
  4. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 defamation is a purely civil wrong carrying no criminal liability.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 4 only

Q5. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the institutional status of Indian Railways?

  • A. It is a departmental undertaking of the Central Government, managed directly by the Government
  • B. It is a statutory corporation registered under the Companies Act
  • C. It is a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Heavy Industries
  • D. It is an autonomous body functioning under NITI Aayog

Q6. The Railway Board is headed by a Chairman (who is also the CEO) along with functional Members. Which of the following is NOT correctly identified as a Member of the Railway Board? 1. Member (Infrastructure) 2. Member (Operations & Business Development) 3. Member (Rolling Stock) 4. Member (Signal & Telecommunication) Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Member (Infrastructure)
  2. Member (Operations & Business Development)
  3. Member (Rolling Stock)
  4. Member (Signal & Telecommunication)
  • A. 4 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 3 only

Q7. Regarding the sequence of events in the NCERT judiciary-chapter controversy (2026), consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court took suo motu cognizance of the chapter in February 2026, before issuing its disassociation order in March 2026. 2. NCERT recalled the entire Class 8 Social Science textbook and issued an apology following the Court's objection. 3. The Supreme Court never modified or diluted any of its orders concerning the three experts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Supreme Court took suo motu cognizance of the chapter in February 2026, before issuing its disassociation order in March 2026.
  2. NCERT recalled the entire Class 8 Social Science textbook and issued an apology following the Court's objection.
  3. The Supreme Court never modified or diluted any of its orders concerning the three experts.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q8. The National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG), which provides near real-time data on pending and disposed cases, was created as an online platform under which one of the following?

  • A. The eCourts Mission Mode Project
  • B. The National Mission for Justice Delivery and Legal Reforms Fund
  • C. The Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme
  • D. The National e-Governance Plan's Common Service Centres scheme

Q9. Consider the following statements on the constitutional safeguards for judicial independence in India: 1. Article 121 bars Parliament from discussing the conduct of a judge except upon a motion for removal. 2. Article 211 extends a comparable bar to the Legislature of a State. 3. The salaries of Supreme Court judges are charged on the Contingency Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Article 121 bars Parliament from discussing the conduct of a judge except upon a motion for removal.
  2. Article 211 extends a comparable bar to the Legislature of a State.
  3. The salaries of Supreme Court judges are charged on the Contingency Fund of India.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q10. Under which Article of the Constitution is the conduct of a judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court barred from being discussed in Parliament, except upon a motion for the judge's removal?

  • A. Article 121
  • B. Article 124
  • C. Article 129
  • D. Article 211

Q11. In the context of the Supreme Court initiating action against the NCERT chapter in February 2026, the expression 'suo motu cognizance' most precisely means that the Court:

  • A. took up the matter on its own motion, without a petition by an aggrieved party
  • B. acted only after a formal reference was made to it by the Union Government
  • C. acted upon a written complaint filed by the affected students
  • D. took up the matter on the recommendation of the Attorney General for India

Q12. With reference to the Supreme Court's successive orders in the NCERT judiciary-chapter matter (2026), consider the following statements: 1. The February 2026 order imposed a blanket ban on the publication, reprint and digital dissemination of the Class 8 Social Science textbook. 2. The March 2026 order directed the Union, States/UTs and publicly funded institutions to disassociate from the three named experts. 3. The May 2026 order tightened the earlier directions by permanently barring the three experts from all curriculum-related work. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The February 2026 order imposed a blanket ban on the publication, reprint and digital dissemination of the Class 8 Social Science textbook.
  2. The March 2026 order directed the Union, States/UTs and publicly funded institutions to disassociate from the three named experts.
  3. The May 2026 order tightened the earlier directions by permanently barring the three experts from all curriculum-related work.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q13. Consider the following statements comparing the National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE) 2023 with earlier arrangements: 1. NCF-SE 2023 aligns schooling to a 5+3+3+4 design, replacing the earlier 10+2 structure. 2. NCF-SE 2023 was developed to give effect to the National Education Policy 2020. 3. Unlike the earlier framework, NCF-SE 2023 covers only the Secondary Stage of school education. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. NCF-SE 2023 aligns schooling to a 5+3+3+4 design, replacing the earlier 10+2 structure.
  2. NCF-SE 2023 was developed to give effect to the National Education Policy 2020.
  3. Unlike the earlier framework, NCF-SE 2023 covers only the Secondary Stage of school education.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q14. Under the 5+3+3+4 curricular design adopted by the National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE) 2023, consider the following: 1. Foundational Stage 2. Preparatory Stage 3. Middle Stage 4. Higher Education (Tertiary) Stage Which of the above is/are correctly identified as stages of school education under NCF-SE 2023?

  1. Foundational Stage
  2. Preparatory Stage
  3. Middle Stage
  4. Higher Education (Tertiary) Stage
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q15. How many Regional Institutes of Education (RIEs) does NCERT operate as its constituent units?

  • A. Four
  • B. Five
  • C. Six
  • D. Seven

Q16. Within NCERT's National Institute of Education, the development of syllabi and textbooks in subjects such as History, Geography, Political Science and Economics is the responsibility of which one of the following departments?

  • A. Department of Education in Science and Mathematics (DESM)
  • B. Department of Curriculum Studies and Development (DCS&D)
  • C. Department of Education in Social Sciences (DESS)
  • D. Department of Education in Languages (DEL)

Q17. With reference to the contempt jurisdiction of Indian courts, consider the following: 1. The Supreme Court's power to punish for contempt of itself flows from Article 129 of the Constitution. 2. High Courts derive their status as courts of record and the power to punish for contempt from Article 215. 3. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 classifies contempt into civil contempt and criminal contempt. 4. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 can curtail the contempt powers that the Supreme Court derives from the Constitution. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The Supreme Court's power to punish for contempt of itself flows from Article 129 of the Constitution.
  2. High Courts derive their status as courts of record and the power to punish for contempt from Article 215.
  3. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 classifies contempt into civil contempt and criminal contempt.
  4. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 can curtail the contempt powers that the Supreme Court derives from the Constitution.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q18. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, which prescribes the procedure for contempt proceedings, falls within the administrative purview of which one of the following Union Ministries?

  • A. Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B. Ministry of Law and Justice
  • C. Ministry of Education
  • D. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

Q19. With reference to judicial precedents bearing on inter-faith adoption and guardianship in India, consider the following statements: 1. In Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court held that Muslims may adopt under the Juvenile Justice Act notwithstanding personal law. 2. In Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court declared the right to adopt to be a fundamental right under Part III of the Constitution. 3. The Juvenile Justice Act provides a secular route to adoption available irrespective of a person's personal law. 4. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 permits appointment of a guardian irrespective of the guardian's religion. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. In Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court held that Muslims may adopt under the Juvenile Justice Act notwithstanding personal law.
  2. In Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court declared the right to adopt to be a fundamental right under Part III of the Constitution.
  3. The Juvenile Justice Act provides a secular route to adoption available irrespective of a person's personal law.
  4. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 permits appointment of a guardian irrespective of the guardian's religion.
  • A. 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 4 only

Q20. Under Muslim personal law, formal adoption in the sense of full filiation is not recognised primarily because it is regarded as doing which one of the following?

  • A. Altering the child's lineage (nasab) and inheritance entitlements
  • B. Invariably requiring the prior sanction of a civil court
  • C. Permanently vesting the child's property in the State
  • D. Automatically dissolving the guardian's own marriage

Q21. With reference to the features of Kafala under Islamic law, consider the following statements: 1. It does not sever the legal ties between the child and the biological parents. 2. The child does not thereby acquire inheritance rights in the guardian's estate. 3. The child does not take on the guardian's family name. 4. It permanently alters the child's lineage and confers full filiation, exactly as adoption does. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It does not sever the legal ties between the child and the biological parents.
  2. The child does not thereby acquire inheritance rights in the guardian's estate.
  3. The child does not take on the guardian's family name.
  4. It permanently alters the child's lineage and confers full filiation, exactly as adoption does.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 2 and 4

Q22. Kafala under Islamic law is expressly recognised as a form of alternative care for children deprived of a family environment under which of the following?

  • A. Article 21 of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child
  • B. Article 20 of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child
  • C. The Hague Convention on International Child Abduction, 1980
  • D. Article 3 of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child

Q23. With reference to the relationship between the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 and the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, consider the following statements: 1. The 1956 Act applies only to Hindus, whereas the 1890 Act applies across communities. 2. The 1956 Act is 'in addition to, and not in derogation of' the 1890 Act. 3. Under the 1956 Act, the father is the natural guardian of a legitimate Hindu minor boy and unmarried girl. 4. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 was enacted after, and to supplement, the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The 1956 Act applies only to Hindus, whereas the 1890 Act applies across communities.
  2. The 1956 Act is 'in addition to, and not in derogation of' the 1890 Act.
  3. Under the 1956 Act, the father is the natural guardian of a legitimate Hindu minor boy and unmarried girl.
  4. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 was enacted after, and to supplement, the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 4 only
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 3 only

Q24. Under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, custody of a Hindu minor who has not completed how many years of age shall ordinarily be with the mother?

  • A. Three years
  • B. Five years
  • C. Seven years
  • D. Twelve years

Q25. With regard to how the welfare (best-interest) principle compares with a strict statutory/parental-rights approach in Indian guardianship law, consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court has held that the welfare of the child is paramount and the statutory rights of parents are subordinate to it. 2. A father's statutory right to guardianship may be refused where his custody would not promote the welfare of the child. 3. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 itself supplies an exhaustive statutory list that conclusively determines the best interest of the child. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Supreme Court has held that the welfare of the child is paramount and the statutory rights of parents are subordinate to it.
  2. A father's statutory right to guardianship may be refused where his custody would not promote the welfare of the child.
  3. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 itself supplies an exhaustive statutory list that conclusively determines the best interest of the child.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q26. According to the settled position of the Supreme Court in guardianship and custody disputes, which one of the following is the first and paramount consideration?

  • A. The statutory right of the natural father
  • B. The welfare (best interest) of the child
  • C. The religion of the minor
  • D. The wishes of the minor's near relatives

Q27. The Madurai Bench described the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 as a 'religion-neutral' legislation. In the context of the ruling, this characterisation means which one of the following?

  • A. The Act applies to any person seeking appointment as guardian irrespective of the religion of the minor or the proposed guardian
  • B. The Act invariably requires a guardian to profess the same religion as the minor
  • C. The Act completely excludes any consideration of the minor's religion
  • D. The Act applies only where the minor and guardian belong to different religions

Q28. In the 2026 Madurai Bench case appointing a Hindu couple as legal guardian of a Muslim girl, how many children did the biological mother have?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five

Q29. Under which section of the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 is a court directed to have regard to the age, sex and religion of the minor while being guided by the minor's welfare in appointing a guardian?

  • A. Section 7
  • B. Section 17
  • C. Section 25
  • D. Section 41

Q30. The Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 — invoked in the recent Madurai Bench inter-religious guardianship case — is organised into how many chapters?

  • A. Three
  • B. Four
  • C. Five
  • D. Six