Polity MCQs for UPSC Prelims — August 2026
Q1. The Development and Welfare Board for De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Communities, approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2019, was set up as a body registered under which one of the following?
- A. The Societies Registration Act, 1860, under the aegis of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- B. Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013, under the aegis of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs
- C. A statute enacted by Parliament, on the pattern of the commissions set up under Article 338B
- D. The Indian Trusts Act, 1882, under the aegis of the Ministry of Rural Development and NITI Aayog
Q2. The Banchhada, Bedia and Bachara of Madhya Pradesh, once registered under the Criminal Tribes Act, 1871, are today placed in which single category recognised by the Constitution?
- A. Scheduled Tribes, since their colonial registration was expressly as 'tribes' subject to surveillance
- B. Scheduled Castes, in the list notified for the State of Madhya Pradesh
- C. Denotified Tribes, a distinct constitutional category created when the 1871 Act was repealed
- D. Other Backward Classes, in the Central list maintained for the State of Madhya Pradesh
Q3. Once a community such as the Bedia has been included in the Scheduled Castes list of a State by a notified Presidential Order, any subsequent inclusion in or exclusion from that list can be effected only by which one of the following?
- A. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes, through a binding recommendation sent to the State Government
- B. The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, through an executive notification issued to the State Government
- C. Parliament, by law amending the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order made for that State
- D. The State Legislature, by a resolution ratified by the Governor of the State concerned
Q4. Consider the following pairs of Indian regulator and the tribunal hearing appeals against its orders: Securities and Exchange Board of India — Securities Appellate Tribunal; Telecom Regulatory Authority of India — Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal; Competition Commission of India — National Company Law Appellate Tribunal; Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India — Securities Appellate Tribunal. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A. Only one
- B. Only two
- C. Only three
- D. All four
Q5. The requirement that the Competition Commission of India issue a show-cause notice before passing a final order in which it differs from the Director General's conclusions — the very lapse that cost it the Grasim penalty — now rests expressly on which one of the following?
- A. The proviso to Section 26(9), which mandates a show-cause notice before the Commission passes its final order
- B. Section 27, which obliges the Commission to accept the Director General's report in all abuse of dominance proceedings
- C. Section 53T, which bars the Commission from ever appealing an order of the Appellate Tribunal to the Supreme Court
- D. Section 19(4), which makes market share the sole and conclusive test of dominance in the relevant market
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's 2026 ruling in the Competition Commission of India's appeal concerning Grasim Industries:
1. The Supreme Court itself exonerated Grasim of abuse of dominance in the viscose staple fibre market and closed the proceedings.
2. The Court dismissed the Commission's appeal and upheld the appellate tribunal's order dated 5 May 2026.
3. The penalty set aside was ₹301.6 crore, originally imposed by the Commission in March 2020.
4. The Commission was directed to hear the company afresh on the points where it proposed to differ from the Director General's report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The Supreme Court itself exonerated Grasim of abuse of dominance in the viscose staple fibre market and closed the proceedings.
- The Court dismissed the Commission's appeal and upheld the appellate tribunal's order dated 5 May 2026.
- The penalty set aside was ₹301.6 crore, originally imposed by the Commission in March 2020.
- The Commission was directed to hear the company afresh on the points where it proposed to differ from the Director General's report.
- A. 1, 2 and 3
- B. 1 and 4 only
- C. 1, 3 and 4
- D. 2, 3 and 4
Q7. Consider the following propositions about the application of natural justice to statutory regulators exercising quasi-judicial functions in India:
1. The deciding authority must be free from bias or personal interest in the matter before it.
2. A party must be heard before an order adverse to its interests is passed against it.
3. A regulator proposing to depart from the findings of its own investigating officer must give the affected party an opportunity to respond on the points of departure.
4. Where a statute lays down a procedure for inquiry, principles of natural justice stand excluded and cannot be read into the proceedings.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- The deciding authority must be free from bias or personal interest in the matter before it.
- A party must be heard before an order adverse to its interests is passed against it.
- A regulator proposing to depart from the findings of its own investigating officer must give the affected party an opportunity to respond on the points of departure.
- Where a statute lays down a procedure for inquiry, principles of natural justice stand excluded and cannot be read into the proceedings.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1 and 4
Q8. In Indian administrative law, the maxim audi alteram partem embodies which one of the following requirements?
- A. That every quasi-judicial authority must record reasons in support of the order it finally passes
- B. That no person shall adjudicate upon a matter in which they hold a personal interest or stake
- C. That a party likely to be affected must receive notice and a reasonable opportunity to be heard
- D. That a matter finally decided between the same parties cannot be re-agitated in fresh proceedings
Q9. Which one of the following best describes the appellate power conferred by Section 53B of the Competition Act, 2002?
- A. To hear only those appeals that the Commission itself certifies as raising a substantial question of law, filed within thirty days of the order
- B. To hear appeals filed within sixty days by any aggrieved person, and to confirm, modify or set aside the Commission's order
- C. To order a fresh investigation through the Tribunal's own Director General before ruling on whether the Commission's order should stand
- D. To review its own earlier orders on an application by the Commission, appeals against the Commission's orders lying instead to the Supreme Court
Q10. Which one of the following statements about the forum that hears appeals against directions, decisions and orders of the Competition Commission of India is correct?
- A. Every order of the Commission is appealable only to the High Court within whose jurisdiction the enterprise has its registered office
- B. Appeals lie to the Securities Appellate Tribunal, whose findings on questions of fact are final and never open to further appeal
- C. The Competition Appellate Tribunal continues to be the exclusive appellate forum for all orders passed by the Commission
- D. Appeals lie to the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal, which may confirm, modify or set aside the Commission's order
Q11. Consider the following statements regarding the Competition Commission of India and its statutory framework:
1. It is a statutory body functioning under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, established under the Competition Act, 2002.
2. Its Chairperson and Members are appointed by the Central Government from a panel of names recommended by a Selection Committee.
3. The Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023 extended the settlement and commitment framework to cartels as well as to abuse of dominant position.
4. The Director General is appointed by the Commission itself, and no prior approval of the Central Government is required for such appointment.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- It is a statutory body functioning under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, established under the Competition Act, 2002.
- Its Chairperson and Members are appointed by the Central Government from a panel of names recommended by a Selection Committee.
- The Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023 extended the settlement and commitment framework to cartels as well as to abuse of dominant position.
- The Director General is appointed by the Commission itself, and no prior approval of the Central Government is required for such appointment.
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 3 and 4
- D. 1 and 4
Q12. Under the Competition Act, 2002, which one of the following best describes the Director General?
- A. An officer appointed to assist the Commission by investigating alleged contraventions, whose findings do not bind the Commission
- B. A whole-time Member of the Commission who presides over the bench hearing abuse of dominance cases and signs its final order
- C. The adjudicating officer who separately quantifies and recovers monetary penalties once the Commission has found a contravention
- D. The nodal officer of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs whose prior approval the Commission must obtain before initiating any inquiry
Q13. Section 4(2) of the Competition Act, 2002 sets out the categories of conduct that constitute an abuse of dominant position. Into how many clauses is this enumeration organised?
- A. Three
- B. Four
- C. Five
- D. Seven
Q14. Under the Competition Act, 2002, which one of the following correctly describes a 'dominant position' held by an enterprise?
- A. A market share above 50% of the relevant market, which the Act treats as conclusive proof of dominance
- B. Strength in the relevant market that lets an enterprise operate independently of competitive forces or sway consumers in its favour
- C. Status as the only supplier of a product in India, with no competing enterprise at all present in that market
- D. A market position that by itself amounts to a contravention, rendering the enterprise automatically liable to penalty
Q15. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, brought in after the cancellation of NEET 2026 over an alleged paper leak, was introduced in the Lok Sabha by which Ministry?
- A. The Ministry of Education, through its Department of Higher Education
- B. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
- C. The Ministry of Home Affairs, through its Department of Internal Security
- D. The Ministry of Law and Justice, through its Legislative Department
Q16. Which one of the following is a statutory commission created by an ordinary Act of Parliament and administered by the Ministry of Women and Child Development?
- A. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, which examines safeguards for notified tribal communities
- B. The National Commission for Women
- C. The National Human Rights Commission, which inquires into violations of rights by public servants
- D. The National Commission for Backward Classes, which examines welfare measures for backward classes
Q17. As amended in 2026, the law on public examinations prescribes a minimum term of imprisonment of how many years for a person committing an organised crime in relation to public examinations?
- A. Five years
- B. Seven years
- C. Ten years
- D. Three years
Q18. The National Commission for Youth set up in March 2002 functioned under the chairmanship of which one of the following?
- A. Shri Balbir Punj, then Member of Parliament, Rajya Sabha
- B. Shri R. K. Mishra, who served the Commission as Member-Secretary
- C. Dr. Dinesh Sharma, who was one of the members of the Commission
- D. Shri Yogesh Shukla, who was one of the members of the Commission
Q19. The National Commission for Youth constituted by the Government of India in March 2002 consisted of how many members in all, including its Chairman?
- A. Four
- B. Six
- C. Nine
- D. Eleven
Q20. The National Youth Commission Bill, 2024 was moved in the Lok Sabha by a member belonging to which one of the following parties?
- A. Janata Dal (United), an NDA constituent based in Bihar
- B. Rashtriya Janata Dal, the principal Opposition party in Bihar
- C. Rashtriya Lok Morcha, an NDA constituent based in Bihar
- D. Lok Janshakti Party (Ram Vilas), an NDA constituent based in Bihar
Q21. With reference to the National Youth Commission Bill, 2024, consider the following:
1. It stands listed in the Lok Sabha 'As Introduced' bills register as Bill No. 92 of 2024.
2. It seeks constitutional status for the proposed National Commission for Youth, and not merely statutory status.
3. It proposes that the Commission be the nodal agency for addressing youth unemployment through structured national policies covering skill development, entrepreneurship, idea incubation and specialised financing for young innovators.
4. It proposes to place the new Commission under the administrative supervision of the NITI Aayog.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- It stands listed in the Lok Sabha 'As Introduced' bills register as Bill No. 92 of 2024.
- It seeks constitutional status for the proposed National Commission for Youth, and not merely statutory status.
- It proposes that the Commission be the nodal agency for addressing youth unemployment through structured national policies covering skill development, entrepreneurship, idea incubation and specialised financing for young innovators.
- It proposes to place the new Commission under the administrative supervision of the NITI Aayog.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 3 only
- D. 3 and 4 only
Q22. How many Private Members' Bills have been passed by the Indian Parliament since 1952?
Q23. In the Lok Sabha, which body examines a Private Member's Bill seeking to amend the Constitution before it is introduced in the House, and thereafter classifies Private Members' Bills into category-A and category-B?
- A. The Business Advisory Committee, which recommends allocation of time for legislative business
- B. The Committee on Subordinate Legislation, which scrutinises rules framed under delegated powers
- C. The Committee on Private Members' Bills and Resolutions
- D. The Committee on Government Assurances, which pursues promises made on the floor of the House