Science & Technology MCQs for UPSC Prelims — July 2026

Q1. Consider the following statements comparing the Samudra Manthan scheme with the Deep Ocean Mission: 1. The Deep Ocean Mission was launched in 2021, whereas Samudra Manthan received Cabinet approval in 2026. 2. The outlay approved for Samudra Manthan is more than ten times the outlay approved for the Deep Ocean Mission. 3. Both have as their central objective the recovery of polymetallic nodules from the deep seabed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Deep Ocean Mission was launched in 2021, whereas Samudra Manthan received Cabinet approval in 2026.
  2. The outlay approved for Samudra Manthan is more than ten times the outlay approved for the Deep Ocean Mission.
  3. Both have as their central objective the recovery of polymetallic nodules from the deep seabed.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. Consider the following statements comparing the Samudra Manthan scheme with the Deep Ocean Mission: 1. The Deep Ocean Mission was launched in 2021, whereas Samudra Manthan received Cabinet approval in 2026. 2. The outlay approved for Samudra Manthan is more than ten times the outlay approved for the Deep Ocean Mission. 3. Both have as their central objective the recovery of polymetallic nodules from the deep seabed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Deep Ocean Mission was launched in 2021, whereas Samudra Manthan received Cabinet approval in 2026.
  2. The outlay approved for Samudra Manthan is more than ten times the outlay approved for the Deep Ocean Mission.
  3. Both have as their central objective the recovery of polymetallic nodules from the deep seabed.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. With reference to WHO guidance on managing hepatotoxicity during tuberculosis treatment, consider the following: 1. Hepatotoxic medicines are to be stopped when serum ALT or AST exceeds five times the upper limit of normal, even in the absence of symptoms. 2. Hepatotoxic medicines are to be stopped at more than three times the upper limit of normal when symptoms of hepatitis are present. 3. Reintroduction of medicines may be considered once ALT and total bilirubin have fallen below two times the upper limit of normal. 4. On reintroduction, isoniazid and pyrazinamide are restarted first, with liver function tests repeated after 3–7 days. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Hepatotoxic medicines are to be stopped when serum ALT or AST exceeds five times the upper limit of normal, even in the absence of symptoms.
  2. Hepatotoxic medicines are to be stopped at more than three times the upper limit of normal when symptoms of hepatitis are present.
  3. Reintroduction of medicines may be considered once ALT and total bilirubin have fallen below two times the upper limit of normal.
  4. On reintroduction, isoniazid and pyrazinamide are restarted first, with liver function tests repeated after 3–7 days.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Q4. Among the enzymes routinely measured in blood, which one is regarded as the most specific serum marker of hepatocellular injury?

  • A. Aspartate aminotransferase
  • B. Alanine aminotransferase
  • C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase
  • D. Alkaline phosphatase

Q5. A serum aspartate aminotransferase to alanine aminotransferase (AST:ALT) ratio exceeding how many times is regarded as highly suggestive of alcoholic liver disease?

  • A. One
  • B. Two
  • C. Three
  • D. Five

Q6. Consider the following statements comparing metabolic dysfunction-associated steatotic liver disease (MASLD) with the earlier nomenclature it replaced: 1. The 2023 change replaced both non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) and metabolic dysfunction-associated fatty liver disease (MAFLD) with MASLD. 2. Whereas the older label defined the condition largely by the absence of other causes, MASLD requires hepatic steatosis together with at least one cardiometabolic risk factor such as obesity, type 2 diabetes, hypertension or dyslipidaemia. 3. One stated aim of the change was to adopt a less stigmatising name; accordingly, MASLD, unlike NAFLD, excludes from its scope any patient reporting alcohol consumption of any amount whatsoever. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The 2023 change replaced both non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) and metabolic dysfunction-associated fatty liver disease (MAFLD) with MASLD.
  2. Whereas the older label defined the condition largely by the absence of other causes, MASLD requires hepatic steatosis together with at least one cardiometabolic risk factor such as obesity, type 2 diabetes, hypertension or dyslipidaemia.
  3. One stated aim of the change was to adopt a less stigmatising name; accordingly, MASLD, unlike NAFLD, excludes from its scope any patient reporting alcohol consumption of any amount whatsoever.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. With reference to the components of a standard liver function test panel, consider the following: 1. Alkaline phosphatase — an enzyme related to the bile ducts, typically increased when they are blocked. 2. Serum albumin — a marker of the synthetic function of the liver. 3. Gamma-glutamyl transferase — a marker of alcoholic hepatitis or of biliary obstruction. 4. Prothrombin time — the panel's measure of hepatic excretory capacity and of bilirubin metabolism. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Alkaline phosphatase — an enzyme related to the bile ducts, typically increased when they are blocked.
  2. Serum albumin — a marker of the synthetic function of the liver.
  3. Gamma-glutamyl transferase — a marker of alcoholic hepatitis or of biliary obstruction.
  4. Prothrombin time — the panel's measure of hepatic excretory capacity and of bilirubin metabolism.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 1. It is also reported as serum glutamic-pyruvic transaminase (SGPT). 2. It requires pyridoxal-5'-phosphate as a cofactor for catalytic activity. 3. It catalyses a reversible transfer of an amino group between alanine and 2-oxoglutarate, yielding pyruvate and glutamate. 4. Within the liver it is concentrated in the mitochondria of zone 3 hepatocytes, which is why mitochondrial injury raises it more sharply than the other serum transaminase. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It is also reported as serum glutamic-pyruvic transaminase (SGPT).
  2. It requires pyridoxal-5'-phosphate as a cofactor for catalytic activity.
  3. It catalyses a reversible transfer of an amino group between alanine and 2-oxoglutarate, yielding pyruvate and glutamate.
  4. Within the liver it is concentrated in the mitochondria of zone 3 hepatocytes, which is why mitochondrial injury raises it more sharply than the other serum transaminase.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 4 only

Q9. Under the Enzyme Commission (EC) system of enzyme nomenclature, alanine aminotransferase (ALT) carries which one of the following classification numbers?

  • A. EC 1.1.1.27, placing it among the oxidoreductases
  • B. EC 2.6.1.1, placing it among the transferases
  • C. EC 2.6.1.2, placing it among the transferases
  • D. EC 3.1.3.1, placing it among the hydrolases

Q10. Consider the following statements about India's operating nuclear power reactors: 1. At the Tarapur Atomic Power Station, the first two units are Boiling Water Reactors while the remaining two units are indigenous Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors. 2. The reactors at Kudankulam are Light Water Reactors set up with Russian collaboration, whereas the most recently commissioned unit at Rawatbhata is an indigenously designed 700 MWe Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor. 3. India's operating fleet of 24 reactors consists exclusively of Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. At the Tarapur Atomic Power Station, the first two units are Boiling Water Reactors while the remaining two units are indigenous Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors.
  2. The reactors at Kudankulam are Light Water Reactors set up with Russian collaboration, whereas the most recently commissioned unit at Rawatbhata is an indigenously designed 700 MWe Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor.
  3. India's operating fleet of 24 reactors consists exclusively of Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q11. With reference to non-departmental and private participation in India's nuclear power sector, consider the following statements: 1. ASHVINI, a joint venture of NPCIL and NTPC, is implementing the Mahi Banswara Rajasthan Atomic Power Project. 2. The Mahi Banswara project comprises four units of 700 MW indigenous Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors. 3. Under the Bharat Small Reactor model, the private partner provides land, cooling water and capital, while NPCIL undertakes design, quality assurance and operation and maintenance. 4. Bharat Small Reactors are 220 MW Boiling Water Reactors adapted for deployment as captive plants near metal industries. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. ASHVINI, a joint venture of NPCIL and NTPC, is implementing the Mahi Banswara Rajasthan Atomic Power Project.
  2. The Mahi Banswara project comprises four units of 700 MW indigenous Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors.
  3. Under the Bharat Small Reactor model, the private partner provides land, cooling water and capital, while NPCIL undertakes design, quality assurance and operation and maintenance.
  4. Bharat Small Reactors are 220 MW Boiling Water Reactors adapted for deployment as captive plants near metal industries.
  • A. 1 and 4
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 2 and 3

Q12. Which one of the following statements about the Department of Atomic Energy is correct?

  • A. It was set up in 1954 through a Presidential Order and functions under the direct charge of the Prime Minister.
  • B. It was set up in 1948 through a Presidential Order and functions under the direct charge of the Prime Minister.
  • C. It was set up in 1954 through a Presidential Order and functions under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
  • D. It was set up in 1962 under the Atomic Energy Act and functions under the Ministry of Power.

Q13. With reference to the Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India (SHANTI) Act, 2025, consider the following statements: 1. It replaces both the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010. 2. It confers statutory recognition on the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board. 3. It permits a company incorporated outside India to be licensed to construct, own and operate a nuclear installation in India. 4. It retains the principle that the operator of a nuclear installation is liable for nuclear damage on a no-fault basis. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It replaces both the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.
  2. It confers statutory recognition on the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board.
  3. It permits a company incorporated outside India to be licensed to construct, own and operate a nuclear installation in India.
  4. It retains the principle that the operator of a nuclear installation is liable for nuclear damage on a no-fault basis.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 4

Q14. Under the Nuclear Energy Mission, how many indigenously designed small modular reactors are targeted to be made operational by 2033?

  • A. At least three
  • B. At least five
  • C. At least ten
  • D. At least twenty

Q15. The design and development of the BSMR-200 and the SMR-55 is being led by which one of the following institutions?

  • A. The Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research, Kalpakkam
  • B. Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited, Kalpakkam
  • C. The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre, Trombay
  • D. The Nuclear Fuel Complex, Hyderabad

Q16. An allocation of ₹20,000 crore for research, development and deployment of indigenously designed small modular reactors was announced under which one of the following?

  • A. The National Green Hydrogen Mission of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
  • B. The Nuclear Energy Mission announced in the Union Budget 2025-26
  • C. The National Critical Mineral Mission announced in the Union Budget 2025-26
  • D. The SHANTI Act, 2025 enacted by Parliament in its Winter Session

Q17. The roadmap for attaining a nuclear power capacity of 100 GW by 2047 has been jointly prepared by experts drawn from the Department of Atomic Energy and which one of the following combinations?

  • A. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and the Solar Energy Corporation of India
  • B. NITI Aayog and the Bureau of Energy Efficiency
  • C. The Ministry of Power and the Central Electricity Authority
  • D. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change and the Central Pollution Control Board

Q18. The revision in scope of the Gaganyaan Programme — enlarging it from three missions to eight and adding the first module of an Indian space station — was accorded approval by which authority, and in which year?

  • A. By the Union Cabinet, in 2024
  • B. By the Space Commission, in 2024
  • C. By the Union Cabinet, in 2021
  • D. By the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, in 2022

Q19. With reference to India's position in human spaceflight relative to other space-faring nations, consider the following statements: 1. On accomplishing its maiden crewed mission, India would become the fourth nation to launch a human spaceflight mission, after the USA, Russia and China. 2. India became the fourth nation to demonstrate autonomous docking and undocking in space, using an indigenously developed docking system. 3. The first Indian to travel to the International Space Station did so in 2025 as part of a commercial mission and not as part of the Gaganyaan crewed flights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. On accomplishing its maiden crewed mission, India would become the fourth nation to launch a human spaceflight mission, after the USA, Russia and China.
  2. India became the fourth nation to demonstrate autonomous docking and undocking in space, using an indigenously developed docking system.
  3. The first Indian to travel to the International Space Station did so in 2025 as part of a commercial mission and not as part of the Gaganyaan crewed flights.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q20. Under the revised scope of the Gaganyaan Programme, consider the following mission designations and their descriptions: 1. G1, G2 and G3 — uncrewed orbital missions 2. H1 and H2 — crewed missions 3. G4 — a docking mission to a space station 4. G5 — the launch of the first module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. G1, G2 and G3 — uncrewed orbital missions
  2. H1 and H2 — crewed missions
  3. G4 — a docking mission to a space station
  4. G5 — the launch of the first module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q21. As stated in a 2026 reply in Parliament, what was the cumulative expenditure incurred on the Gaganyaan Programme as on January 2026?

  • A. About ₹1,763 crore
  • B. About ₹6,018 crore
  • C. About ₹9,023 crore
  • D. About ₹11,170 crore

Q22. As on June 2026, how many authorisations had the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) issued?

  • A. 106, every one of them issued to a foreign-owned launch service provider
  • B. 133, issued across Government entities and non-government entities
  • C. 4,500, covering all organisations registered with the Centre
  • D. 2,023, one for each satellite launched from Indian soil to date

Q23. With reference to IN-SPACe and NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), consider the following statements: 1. IN-SPACe functions as a single-window agency to authorise and promote space activities of both Government entities and non-government entities. 2. NSIL is a public sector enterprise under the Department of Space, incorporated in 2019, functioning as the commercial arm of ISRO. 3. Authorisations to non-government entities for undertaking space activities are granted by NSIL, while IN-SPACe confines itself to marketing ISRO's technologies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. IN-SPACe functions as a single-window agency to authorise and promote space activities of both Government entities and non-government entities.
  2. NSIL is a public sector enterprise under the Department of Space, incorporated in 2019, functioning as the commercial arm of ISRO.
  3. Authorisations to non-government entities for undertaking space activities are granted by NSIL, while IN-SPACe confines itself to marketing ISRO's technologies.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q24. With reference to ISRO's precursor tests for the Gaganyaan Programme, consider the following statements: 1. The Pad Abort Test of 2018 was carried out from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota. 2. In the Pad Abort Test, the simulated crew module reached an altitude of nearly 2.7 km before descending under parachutes. 3. The Test Vehicle Development flight TV-D1 was undertaken for performance validation of the Crew Escape System. 4. The Test Vehicle Development flight TV-D1 was flown on the fully configured Human Rated Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (HLVM3). Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The Pad Abort Test of 2018 was carried out from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
  2. In the Pad Abort Test, the simulated crew module reached an altitude of nearly 2.7 km before descending under parachutes.
  3. The Test Vehicle Development flight TV-D1 was undertaken for performance validation of the Crew Escape System.
  4. The Test Vehicle Development flight TV-D1 was flown on the fully configured Human Rated Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (HLVM3).
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 4 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q25. Which one of the following was the FIRST flight test carried out by ISRO to qualify the Crew Escape System for its human spaceflight programme?

  • A. The Pad Abort Test of July 2018, in which a simulated crew module was lifted clear of the launch pad by quick-acting solid motors and recovered after a parachute descent
  • B. The Test Vehicle Development flight TV-D1 of October 2023, in which the crew module was separated at an in-flight abort condition and recovered from the Bay of Bengal
  • C. The Test Vehicle Abort Mission TV-D2, which simulates an abort scenario at a different point of the ascent phase of the human-rated launch vehicle
  • D. The integrated air-drop test of the crew module parachute cluster, carried out over the sea before the first uncrewed orbital mission G1

Q26. With reference to the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS), consider the following: 1. It is planned as a five-module station in Low Earth Orbit, expected to be fully operational by the 2035 timeframe. 2. Its overall configuration has been reviewed by a National Level Review Committee. 3. Its base module is targeted for launch by 2028. 4. Its subsystems are being designed exclusively to indigenous standards, which precludes interoperability with systems provided by other international agencies. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. It is planned as a five-module station in Low Earth Orbit, expected to be fully operational by the 2035 timeframe.
  2. Its overall configuration has been reviewed by a National Level Review Committee.
  3. Its base module is targeted for launch by 2028.
  4. Its subsystems are being designed exclusively to indigenous standards, which precludes interoperability with systems provided by other international agencies.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q27. Which one of the following correctly describes the arrangement for developing the first module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS-01)?

  • A. It is being developed in ISRO Centres/Units as a revision in scope of the Gaganyaan Programme, at an estimated cost of about ₹1,763 crore for 2025–2028
  • B. It is being developed by ISRO as a standalone programme separate from Gaganyaan, at an estimated cost of about ₹20,193 crore for 2025–2035
  • C. It is being developed by NewSpace India Limited for the Department of Space, at an estimated cost of about ₹1,763 crore for 2019–2028
  • D. It is being developed by IN-SPACe through authorised private consortia, at an estimated cost of about ₹11,170 crore for 2025–2028

Q28. Which one of the following correctly describes the institutional responsibility for executing the Gaganyaan Programme?

  • A. It is executed by ISRO under the Department of Space, which answers for it in Parliament through the Minister for Space
  • B. It is executed by ISRO under the Ministry of Science and Technology, with IN-SPACe authorising each of its crewed flights
  • C. It is executed by NewSpace India Limited, the commercial arm of ISRO under the Department of Space, on a demand-driven basis
  • D. It is executed by the Human Space Flight Centre under the Ministry of Defence, with ISRO supplying only the launch vehicles

Q29. The Gaganyaan Programme, which envisages an Indian human spaceflight to Low Earth Orbit, originally received governmental approval in which one of the following forms?

  • A. Approval by the Union Cabinet in December 2018, with an outlay of about ₹10,000 crore
  • B. Approval by the Union Cabinet in December 2021, with an outlay of about ₹9,023 crore
  • C. Approval by the Space Commission in December 2018, with an outlay of about ₹20,193 crore
  • D. Approval by the Cabinet Committee on Security in July 2018, with an outlay of about ₹11,170 crore

Q30. India's Gross Expenditure on Research and Development stands at about 0.64 per cent of GDP, with the private sector accounting for only around 35-36 per cent of it. The concessional financing intended to correct this imbalance is operationalised through which one of the following?

  • A. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation, acting through designated second-level fund managers
  • B. The Atal Innovation Mission, acting through its countrywide network of Atal Incubation Centres
  • C. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, through the Startup India Seed Fund Scheme
  • D. The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research, through its constituent chain of national laboratories