Social Justice MCQs for UPSC Prelims

Q1. The ILO Maternity Protection Convention, 2000 (No. 183) stipulates a compulsory period of post-natal leave during which the mother must not be allowed to work. How long is that compulsory period?

  • A. Six weeks
  • B. Eight weeks
  • C. Fourteen weeks
  • D. Eighteen weeks

Q2. The directive in Article 42 of the Constitution is carried to women outside the organised workforce through a centrally sponsored conditional cash transfer to pregnant and lactating mothers under the 'Samarthya' sub-scheme of Mission Shakti. That transfer is implemented by which one of the following?

  • A. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • B. The Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • C. The Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • D. The Ministry of Rural Development

Q3. In the debate on khap diktats and extra-judicial punishment, an 'honour killing' is most accurately described as:

  • A. The killing of a bride by her husband's relatives on account of unmet demands for dowry made at or after the solemnisation of the marriage, dealt with as a distinct offence in criminal law
  • B. The killing of a person by members of a rival clan in retaliation for an earlier killing, in settlement of a long-standing feud between landholding lineages over land and succession
  • C. The killing of a person, usually by relatives, flowing from the belief that a family's honour is bound to a woman's chastity, triggered by conduct such as premarital relations or marriage outside caste or religion
  • D. The killing of a person carried out only in execution of a formal death sentence pronounced by an assembly of village elders after a hearing at which both the families concerned were represented

Q4. Each Autonomous Board functioning under the supervision of the National Medical Commission consists of a President and four members, who are appointed by which one of the following?

  • A. The Central Government on the recommendation of a Search Committee
  • B. The Chairperson of the Commission in consultation with the Medical Advisory Council
  • C. The President of India on the recommendation of the Union Health Minister
  • D. The Union Health Ministry on the recommendation of the Ethics and Medical Registration Board

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding postgraduate medical training and its regulator in India: 1. Under the District Residency Programme, second- or third-year postgraduate medical students undergo three months of training at District Hospitals as an essential component of the postgraduate curriculum. 2. Framing the curriculum for postgraduate medical education and granting recognition to postgraduate qualifications is the function of the Medical Assessment and Rating Board, while assessment and rating of medical institutions rests with the Post-Graduate Medical Education Board. 3. The National Medical Commission was constituted with effect from 25 September 2020, replacing the Medical Council of India, which stood dissolved on the repeal of the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Under the District Residency Programme, second- or third-year postgraduate medical students undergo three months of training at District Hospitals as an essential component of the postgraduate curriculum.
  2. Framing the curriculum for postgraduate medical education and granting recognition to postgraduate qualifications is the function of the Medical Assessment and Rating Board, while assessment and rating of medical institutions rests with the Post-Graduate Medical Education Board.
  3. The National Medical Commission was constituted with effect from 25 September 2020, replacing the Medical Council of India, which stood dissolved on the repeal of the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 2 and 3 only

Q6. Under which one of the following sections of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 is a complaint of harassment of a victim, informant or witness required to be tried separately from the main case and concluded within two months?

  • A. Section 4, on punishment for neglect of duties
  • B. Section 14A, on appeals to the High Court
  • C. Section 15A, on rights of victims and witnesses
  • D. Section 18A, on arrest and preliminary enquiry

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989: 1. The Act excludes the application of the anticipatory bail provision of the criminal procedure law to a person accused of an offence under the Act. 2. The Act provides that no preliminary enquiry shall be required for the registration of a First Information Report under it. 3. An appeal against an order of a Special Court granting or refusing bail lies to the Supreme Court. 4. A public servant who is himself a member of a Scheduled Caste and wilfully neglects his duties under the Act is punishable with imprisonment of not less than six months. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The Act excludes the application of the anticipatory bail provision of the criminal procedure law to a person accused of an offence under the Act.
  2. The Act provides that no preliminary enquiry shall be required for the registration of a First Information Report under it.
  3. An appeal against an order of a Special Court granting or refusing bail lies to the Supreme Court.
  4. A public servant who is himself a member of a Scheduled Caste and wilfully neglects his duties under the Act is punishable with imprisonment of not less than six months.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 3 and 4 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q8. Consider the following pairs relating to WHO's recent work on traditional medicine: 1. First WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine — Gandhinagar, Gujarat, 2023 2. Second WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine — Gandhinagar, Gujarat, December 2025 3. Consensus outcome of the second Global Summit — the Gujarat Declaration 4. WHO traditional medicine strategy 2025–2034 — adopted by the Seventy-eighth World Health Assembly Which of the above pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

  1. First WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine — Gandhinagar, Gujarat, 2023
  2. Second WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine — Gandhinagar, Gujarat, December 2025
  3. Consensus outcome of the second Global Summit — the Gujarat Declaration
  4. WHO traditional medicine strategy 2025–2034 — adopted by the Seventy-eighth World Health Assembly
  • A. 1 and 4
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 2, 3 and 4

Q9. Consider the following: 1. Strengthening the evidence base for traditional, complementary and integrative medicine 2. Bolstering safety, quality and effectiveness through appropriate regulatory mechanisms 3. Facilitating the integration of traditional medicine into national health systems 4. Creating a binding international convention on patenting of traditional-knowledge remedies Which of the above is/are correctly identified as objectives of the WHO traditional medicine strategy 2025–2034?

  1. Strengthening the evidence base for traditional, complementary and integrative medicine
  2. Bolstering safety, quality and effectiveness through appropriate regulatory mechanisms
  3. Facilitating the integration of traditional medicine into national health systems
  4. Creating a binding international convention on patenting of traditional-knowledge remedies
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q10. Pending completion of its permanent campus, the interim office of the WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre functions out of which single institution?

  • A. The Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda, Jamnagar, which is a WHO Collaborating Centre
  • B. The All India Institute of Ayurveda, New Delhi, which is an autonomous institute of the Ministry of Ayush
  • C. The ICMR-National Institute of Traditional Medicine, Belagavi, which works on traditional-medicine research
  • D. The National Institute of Ayurveda, Jaipur, which is a deemed-to-be university under the Ministry of Ayush

Q11. With reference to the gender dimension of youth outside employment, education and training in India, consider the following: 1. In ILO analysis, the NEET share among young women was nearly five times that among young men, at 48.4% against 9.8%. 2. Young women accounted for around 95% of India's total youth population that was not in employment, education or training. 3. 'Attended domestic duties only' is a distinct activity status code in the PLFS schedule, and persons so classified are counted as employed unpaid helpers. 4. Among females outside the labour force in 2025, about 44.4% cited child care and personal commitments in home-making as the main reason. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. In ILO analysis, the NEET share among young women was nearly five times that among young men, at 48.4% against 9.8%.
  2. Young women accounted for around 95% of India's total youth population that was not in employment, education or training.
  3. 'Attended domestic duties only' is a distinct activity status code in the PLFS schedule, and persons so classified are counted as employed unpaid helpers.
  4. Among females outside the labour force in 2025, about 44.4% cited child care and personal commitments in home-making as the main reason.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 3 and 4 only

Q12. Supplementary nutrition, growth monitoring and pre-school non-formal education for children below six years, including in tribal districts, are delivered under which one of the following umbrella missions?

  • A. Mission Vatsalya, implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • B. Mission Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0, implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • C. PM POSHAN, implemented by the Department of School Education and Literacy
  • D. Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan, implemented by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Q13. Among the following initiatives of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, which one carries the largest approved five-year outlay?

  • A. PM-JANMAN, which is stated to cover every Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group habitation in the country
  • B. Van Dhan Karyakram, under which all minor forest produce gatherers are to be organised into Kendras
  • C. Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan, covering 63,843 villages with a Centre and State share
  • D. Eklavya Model Residential Schools, which is stated to cover all blocks having any Scheduled Tribe population

Q14. Consider the following statements about the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and its programmes: 1. The Ministry was carved out as a separate ministry in 1999 for focused socio-economic development of Scheduled Tribes. 2. Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan seeks to saturate infrastructure gaps in tribal villages through convergence of 17 ministries with 25 interventions. 3. Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana has been expanded and subsumed under Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan. 4. Van Dhan Vikas Kendras, taken up from 2019, are implemented by the Ministry through the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The Ministry was carved out as a separate ministry in 1999 for focused socio-economic development of Scheduled Tribes.
  2. Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan seeks to saturate infrastructure gaps in tribal villages through convergence of 17 ministries with 25 interventions.
  3. Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojana has been expanded and subsumed under Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan.
  4. Van Dhan Vikas Kendras, taken up from 2019, are implemented by the Ministry through the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 1 and 4

Q15. Consider the following demands raised by Adivasi students agitating over tribal hostel rules in Maharashtra in August 2026: 1. Withdrawal of the State Government Resolutions dated 5 August 2026 and 14 August 2026. 2. Revision of the Government Resolution of 11 November 2011 governing hostel allowances. 3. Removal of the existing upper age limit of 30 years for hostel admission, or its raising to 36 years. 4. Transfer of the State's Government Tribal Hostels and Ashram Shalas to the National Education Society for Tribal Students so that they are run on EMRS norms. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Withdrawal of the State Government Resolutions dated 5 August 2026 and 14 August 2026.
  2. Revision of the Government Resolution of 11 November 2011 governing hostel allowances.
  3. Removal of the existing upper age limit of 30 years for hostel admission, or its raising to 36 years.
  4. Transfer of the State's Government Tribal Hostels and Ashram Shalas to the National Education Society for Tribal Students so that they are run on EMRS norms.
  • A. 1 and 4
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q16. Consider the following statements about the National Education Society for Tribal Students (NESTS): 1. It is an autonomous society functioning under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. 2. It releases both capital and recurring grants to States/UTs, PSUs and construction agencies for Eklavya Model Residential Schools. 3. It investigates and monitors the working of safeguards provided to Scheduled Tribes and presents annual reports to the President. 4. It functions under the administrative control of the Department of School Education and Literacy in the Ministry of Education. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. It is an autonomous society functioning under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
  2. It releases both capital and recurring grants to States/UTs, PSUs and construction agencies for Eklavya Model Residential Schools.
  3. It investigates and monitors the working of safeguards provided to Scheduled Tribes and presents annual reports to the President.
  4. It functions under the administrative control of the Department of School Education and Literacy in the Ministry of Education.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 3 and 4

Q17. The autonomous society that is the lead national implementing body for the Eklavya Model Residential Schools scheme was constituted in which year?

  • A. 1997-98
  • B. 1999
  • C. 2013
  • D. 2019

Q18. Central funds for the construction and running of Eklavya Model Residential Schools are released by the Union to which one of the following bodies, which in turn transfers them to States/UTs, PSUs and construction agencies?

  • A. Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India, a national-level cooperative body for tribal produce
  • B. National Education Society for Tribal Students, an autonomous society set up for this purpose
  • C. Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti, the autonomous society running residential schools in rural districts
  • D. National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation, the apex lending body for ST beneficiaries

Q19. Consider the following statements about the Eklavya Model Residential Schools scheme: 1. It was introduced in 1997-98 to provide education from Class 6 to Class 12 to Scheduled Tribe students in remote areas. 2. Under the revamped scheme, a school is to be set up in every block having more than 50 per cent ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons. 3. The recurring cost norm was raised from ₹1,09,000 per student per annum to ₹1,47,062 with effect from the financial year 2025-26. 4. The revamped scheme targets 1,740 schools, one in each tribal-majority district of the country. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It was introduced in 1997-98 to provide education from Class 6 to Class 12 to Scheduled Tribe students in remote areas.
  2. Under the revamped scheme, a school is to be set up in every block having more than 50 per cent ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons.
  3. The recurring cost norm was raised from ₹1,09,000 per student per annum to ₹1,47,062 with effect from the financial year 2025-26.
  4. The revamped scheme targets 1,740 schools, one in each tribal-majority district of the country.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 4 only

Q20. With reference to Samagra Shiksha, the umbrella scheme for school education monitored through UDISE+, consider the following statements: 1. It subsumes the erstwhile Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan and Teacher Education schemes, and spans pre-school to class 12. 2. Centre-State fund sharing is 90:10 for the eight North-Eastern States and the three Himalayan States of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. 3. For Union Territories without a legislature, the scheme is funded on a 60:40 basis between the Centre and the UT administration. 4. Teacher salary support lies outside the scheme, which funds only infrastructure creation and RTE entitlements. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It subsumes the erstwhile Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan and Teacher Education schemes, and spans pre-school to class 12.
  2. Centre-State fund sharing is 90:10 for the eight North-Eastern States and the three Himalayan States of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
  3. For Union Territories without a legislature, the scheme is funded on a 60:40 basis between the Centre and the UT administration.
  4. Teacher salary support lies outside the scheme, which funds only infrastructure creation and RTE entitlements.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 4

Q21. The proposals for a Gender Inclusion Fund and for Special Education Zones in areas with a significant proportion of disadvantaged groups originate in the National Education Policy 2020, which was drafted by a Committee chaired by:

  • A. Dr. K. Kasturirangan
  • B. Shri T.S.R. Subramanian
  • C. Dr. D.S. Kothari
  • D. Prof. Yash Pal

Q22. The proportion of schools possessing functional computers and internet connectivity, as captured through UDISE+, is scored as a parameter under which one of the following?

  • A. The 'Effective Classroom Transaction' category of the Performance Grading Index for Districts
  • B. The 'Teachers Education and Training' domain of the Performance Grading Index 2.0 for States/UTs
  • C. The 'Governance Process' domain of the Performance Grading Index 2.0 for States/UTs
  • D. The 'Digital Learning' category of the Performance Grading Index for Districts

Q23. The stage-wise dropout rates and the Gross Enrolment Ratio quoted for the 2025-26 academic year rest on which one of the following, and on what basis are they compiled?

  • A. UDISE+, compiled from particulars reported by recognised schools themselves, government and private alike, under the Department of School Education and Literacy
  • B. PARAKH Rashtriya Sarvekshan, a complete enumeration of every enrolled student in every school of the country, conducted by NCERT
  • C. The Periodic Labour Force Survey, which alone furnishes the country's official estimates of school dropout among children and adolescents
  • D. The National Sample Survey on education, which covers exclusively government and government-aided schools across all States and UTs

Q24. Regarding the school stage at which the highest pupil-teacher ratio was recorded in UDISE+ 2025-26, which one of the following statements is correct?

  • A. It is the Secondary stage, at 21, which nonetheless remains below the National Education Policy 2020 benchmark of under 30:1
  • B. It is the Middle stage, at 17, which is the only stage in the country still exceeding the National Education Policy 2020 benchmark
  • C. It is the Foundational stage, at 10, all the other stages having entirely met the National Education Policy 2020 benchmark
  • D. It is the Preparatory stage, at 12, which alone breaches the ratio of under 25:1 that the Policy prescribes for every school

Q25. Consider the following stage-wise pupil-teacher ratios attributed to UDISE+ 2025-26: 1. Foundational stage — 10 2. Preparatory stage — 13 3. Middle stage — 17 4. Secondary stage — 21 Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Foundational stage — 10
  2. Preparatory stage — 13
  3. Middle stage — 17
  4. Secondary stage — 21
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 2, 3 and 4
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 3 only

Q26. Consider the following statements comparing the Performance Grading Index 2.0 for States/UTs with the Performance Grading Index for Districts: 1. Under the State/UT index, the highest attainable grade is 'Utkarsh', awarded to a State/UT scoring more than 940 points. 2. The district index carries a total weightage of 600 points, as against 1000 points for the State/UT index. 3. 'School Safety & Child Protection' and 'Digital Learning' are categories of the district index, and do not figure among the domains of the State/UT index. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Under the State/UT index, the highest attainable grade is 'Utkarsh', awarded to a State/UT scoring more than 940 points.
  2. The district index carries a total weightage of 600 points, as against 1000 points for the State/UT index.
  3. 'School Safety & Child Protection' and 'Digital Learning' are categories of the district index, and do not figure among the domains of the State/UT index.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q27. The Performance Grading Index 2.0 for States/UTs (PGI-S) is structured as which one of the following?

  • A. 600 points across 70 indicators, grouped under six categories
  • B. 1000 points across 73 indicators, grouped under two categories and six domains
  • C. 1000 points across 70 indicators, grouped under five domains, with States placed in five grades
  • D. 600 points across 83 indicators, grouped under two categories and four domains

Q28. The online, school-level data-capture platform that replaced paper-based annual returns in school education was developed and is operationally supervised by which one of the following?

  • A. The National Statistical Office, under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  • B. The Department of School Education and Literacy, under the Ministry of Education
  • C. The National Council of Educational Research and Training, an autonomous body of the Ministry of Education
  • D. The Department of Higher Education, under the Ministry of Education

Q29. With reference to the origin and institutional evolution of UDISE/UDISE+, consider the following: 1. DISE — the data system for elementary education that was merged to form UDISE. 2. SEMIS — the data system for secondary education that was merged to form UDISE. 3. NUEPA (now NIEPA) — the institution that managed UDISE. 4. NCERT — the body on whose servers UDISE+ data is hosted. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. DISE — the data system for elementary education that was merged to form UDISE.
  2. SEMIS — the data system for secondary education that was merged to form UDISE.
  3. NUEPA (now NIEPA) — the institution that managed UDISE.
  4. NCERT — the body on whose servers UDISE+ data is hosted.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 3 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q30. Which one of the following correctly describes the Unified District Information System for Education Plus (UDISE+), whose latest annual report was brought out by the Ministry of Education?

  • A. A household sample survey of schooling status and educational expenditure, conducted annually across States since 2012-13
  • B. A national learning-achievement assessment of sampled students in selected grades, conducted across districts since 2024
  • C. A census-mode digital platform on which every recognised school reports its own particulars, used for annual data capture since 2018-19
  • D. A district-level composite ranking of school education performance, compiled and published by the Ministry since 2018-19