UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — The DAILY QUIZ

Q1. The offence of committing 'acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India' — which replaced the erstwhile offence of sedition — is contained in which one of the following?

• A. Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
• B. Section 124A retained as such in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
• C. Section 150 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
• D. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000

Q2. Under Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, apart from imprisonment for life, what is the maximum term of imprisonment (in years) that may alternatively be imposed?

• A. Three years
• B. Five years
• C. Seven years
• D. Ten years

Q3. With reference to the history of the sedition provision (Section 124A) under the Indian Penal Code, consider the following statements: 1. Section 124A was inserted into the IPC in 1870, about a decade after the Code's enactment. 2. Macaulay's 1837 draft Penal Code contained the sedition clause, which was carried into the Code as enacted in 1860. 3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was prosecuted for sedition, including over articles published in Kesari. 4. Mahatma Gandhi was tried under Section 124A in 1922. Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

1. Section 124A was inserted into the IPC in 1870, about a decade after the Code's enactment.
2. Macaulay's 1837 draft Penal Code contained the sedition clause, which was carried into the Code as enacted in 1860.
3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was prosecuted for sedition, including over articles published in Kesari.
4. Mahatma Gandhi was tried under Section 124A in 1922.

• A. 1, 3 and 4
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q4. Under Section 124A IPC, the term 'disaffection' was judicially understood to mean which one of the following?

• A. Disloyalty and all feelings of enmity towards the government established by law
• B. Mere disapproval of specific government measures expressed through lawful means
• C. Any personal criticism directed at an individual minister
• D. Wilful failure to comply with a lawful tax demand

Q5. With reference to Supreme Court jurisprudence on sedition, consider the following statements: 1. Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) upheld the constitutional validity of Section 124A. 2. Kedar Nath Singh was decided by a five-judge Constitution Bench. 3. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down Section 124A as unconstitutional. 4. In Kedar Nath Singh, the offence was confined to acts having a tendency to incite violence or public disorder. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) upheld the constitutional validity of Section 124A.
2. Kedar Nath Singh was decided by a five-judge Constitution Bench.
3. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down Section 124A as unconstitutional.
4. In Kedar Nath Singh, the offence was confined to acts having a tendency to incite violence or public disorder.

• A. 1 and 2
• B. 2 and 4
• C. 1, 2 and 4
• D. 3 only

Q6. Consider the following statements about judicial treatment of sedition: 1. In Balwant Singh v. State of Punjab, raising casual slogans that did not incite public disorder was held not to amount to sedition. 2. In Kedar Nath Singh, the Court read down Section 124A rather than striking it down. 3. The Bench in Kedar Nath Singh comprised three judges. 4. Kedar Nath Singh distinguished disloyalty that excites violence from strong criticism of the government. Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

1. In Balwant Singh v. State of Punjab, raising casual slogans that did not incite public disorder was held not to amount to sedition.
2. In Kedar Nath Singh, the Court read down Section 124A rather than striking it down.
3. The Bench in Kedar Nath Singh comprised three judges.
4. Kedar Nath Singh distinguished disloyalty that excites violence from strong criticism of the government.

• A. 1, 2 and 4
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q7. With reference to the Supreme Court's May 2022 interim order on Section 124A, consider the following: 1. The Centre and States were restrained from registering fresh cases for sedition. 2. Pending trials, appeals and proceedings under Section 124A were to be kept in abeyance. 3. The Court declared Section 124A unconstitutional and struck it down. 4. Persons already booked could approach the courts for appropriate relief. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. The Centre and States were restrained from registering fresh cases for sedition.
2. Pending trials, appeals and proceedings under Section 124A were to be kept in abeyance.
3. The Court declared Section 124A unconstitutional and struck it down.
4. Persons already booked could approach the courts for appropriate relief.

• A. 1 and 2
• B. 1, 2 and 4
• C. 2 and 4
• D. 3 only

Q8. Consider the following statements comparing the May 2022 Supreme Court order with the subsequent legislative change: 1. The May 2022 order suspended the operation of Section 124A, whereas the BNS, 2023 removed sedition by replacing the IPC altogether. 2. Under the May 2022 order the Centre stated it was re-examining Section 124A, and the BNS then retained the word 'sedition' in its text. 3. The May 2022 stay was an interim judicial measure, whereas the removal of sedition in 2023 was effected through legislation enacted by Parliament. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. The May 2022 order suspended the operation of Section 124A, whereas the BNS, 2023 removed sedition by replacing the IPC altogether.
2. Under the May 2022 order the Centre stated it was re-examining Section 124A, and the BNS then retained the word 'sedition' in its text.
3. The May 2022 stay was an interim judicial measure, whereas the removal of sedition in 2023 was effected through legislation enacted by Parliament.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. The three new criminal laws — including the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 — which came into force on 1 July 2024, were piloted in Parliament by which Union Ministry?

• A. Ministry of Home Affairs
• B. Ministry of Law and Justice
• C. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
• D. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Q10. With reference to reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech under the Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. Security of the State is a ground for reasonable restriction under Article 19(2). 2. 'Public order' was inserted as a ground under Article 19(2) by the First Constitutional Amendment (1951). 3. 'Sedition' is expressly enumerated as a ground under Article 19(2). 4. Sovereignty and integrity of India is a ground under Article 19(2). Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

1. Security of the State is a ground for reasonable restriction under Article 19(2).
2. 'Public order' was inserted as a ground under Article 19(2) by the First Constitutional Amendment (1951).
3. 'Sedition' is expressly enumerated as a ground under Article 19(2).
4. Sovereignty and integrity of India is a ground under Article 19(2).

• A. 1, 2 and 4
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4