UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Most common word used by Speaker is ‘no’: Opposition

Q1. Under Article 94(c) of the Constitution of India, the Lok Sabha Speaker can be removed by 'a majority of all the then members of the House'. Which of the following correctly explains the term 'all the then members' as used in this provision?

  • A. All 543 members constituting the full sanctioned strength of the Lok Sabha, regardless of vacancies
  • B. All members who are present and voting at the sitting on which the resolution is put to vote
  • C. All members whose seats are filled at the time the vote is taken, excluding any currently vacant seats
  • D. All members belonging to parties that gave notice of the resolution, excluding abstentions

Q2. Consider the following statements about the procedure for removing the Lok Sabha Speaker under the Constitution of India and the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha. Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

  1. A written notice of at least 14 days must be given before a resolution for the removal of the Speaker can be moved in the House.
  2. The Speaker is constitutionally prohibited from being physically present in the House during the sitting at which the removal resolution is debated.
  3. During the debate on a resolution for the Speaker's removal, the Speaker retains the right to speak in the House and to vote in the first instance.
  4. The removal resolution requires a majority of all the then members of the House, a threshold stricter than a simple majority of members present and voting.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 1 and 4
  • D. 2 and 3

Q3. Consider the following statements about the constitutional position and conventions associated with the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Under Article 100 of the Constitution, the Lok Sabha Speaker does not vote on any question in the first instance but exercises a casting vote only in the event of an equality of votes.
  2. By constitutional mandate, the Lok Sabha Speaker must resign their political party membership upon election to the office, mirroring the UK parliamentary convention.
  3. Article 96 of the Constitution creates an exception allowing the Speaker to both speak and vote in the first instance during the debate on a resolution for their own removal.
  4. The Speaker's term is co-terminus with the life of the Lok Sabha and does not carry the security of tenure enjoyed by the judges of the Supreme Court of India.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q4. Article 94 of the Constitution of India specifies the grounds on which a member holding the office of Lok Sabha Speaker vacates that office. How many distinct grounds for vacation of office are enumerated in Article 94?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five

Q5. The Lok Sabha Secretariat provides administrative support to the Speaker's office. Under which constitutional provision is the Lok Sabha Secretariat constituted as a separate secretarial body?

  • A. Article 93, which establishes the offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker
  • B. Article 98, which provides for separate secretarial staff for each House of Parliament
  • C. Article 77, which deals with conduct of business of the Government of India
  • D. Article 105, which confers powers, privileges and immunities on members of Parliament

Q6. Om Birla was re-elected as Speaker of the 18th Lok Sabha in June 2024, making him only the second Speaker in Indian parliamentary history to serve consecutive complete terms. How many Lok Sabha Speakers before Om Birla had served two or more consecutive complete terms since the 1st Lok Sabha was constituted in 1952?

  • A. None
  • B. One
  • C. Two
  • D. Three

Q7. When the no-confidence motion against Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla was debated in March 2026, approximately how many hours did the House spend debating the motion before it was rejected by voice vote?

  • A. Approximately 5 hours
  • B. Approximately 9 hours
  • C. Approximately 13 hours
  • D. Approximately 18 hours

Q8. Consider the following statements about the no-confidence motion moved by the INDIA bloc against Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla in March 2026. Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

  1. The motion was admitted after at least 50 members rose in their places in support when it was moved on the floor of the House.
  2. The resolution required a two-thirds majority of members present and voting to succeed in removing the Speaker.
  3. The Speaker was constitutionally barred from presiding over the House during the entire duration of the debate on the removal motion.
  4. The motion was ultimately rejected by a voice vote, defeating the Opposition's attempt to remove the Speaker.
  • A. 1 and 4
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. Balram Jakhar holds a unique distinction in the history of the Lok Sabha Speaker's office. Which of the following correctly identifies his primary superlative record in that office?

  • A. He was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha to be elected unanimously without any contest from the opposition
  • B. He was the longest-serving Lok Sabha Speaker in Indian parliamentary history, having presided over two consecutive full-term Lok Sabhas
  • C. He was the first Speaker who successfully adjudicated a no-confidence motion moved against himself without being removed
  • D. He was the first Speaker elected from a constituency outside of Maharashtra or Uttar Pradesh

Q10. Under Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, which procedural requirement constitutes the PRIMARY gate that determines — at the moment of moving — whether a no-confidence motion against the Speaker proceeds to scheduled debate?

  • A. The motion must be signed by members collectively representing at least one-tenth of the total membership of the House
  • B. At least 50 members must rise in their places in support of the motion when the Speaker puts it to the House
  • C. The motion must be countersigned by the Leader of the Opposition as the recognised head of the principal opposition party
  • D. The motion must receive prior sanction of the Parliamentary Affairs Committee before being admitted for reading

Q11. Consider the following statements comparing the constitutional positions of the Lok Sabha Speaker and the Deputy Speaker with respect to removal and presiding functions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are removed from office under the same constitutional provision, namely Article 94 of the Constitution.
  2. When a resolution for the removal of the Deputy Speaker is under consideration, the Deputy Speaker shall not preside but may be present in the House, speak, and vote in the first instance.
  3. The Deputy Speaker requires a higher majority for removal than the Speaker, reflecting the Speaker's greater constitutional seniority.
  4. Under Article 95, the Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker whenever the office of Speaker is vacant or whenever the Speaker is absent from a sitting.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 3 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 2, 3 and 4

Q12. Consider the following statements about the conventions and constitutional rules governing the conduct of the Lok Sabha Speaker. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Unlike the Speaker of the UK House of Commons, the Lok Sabha Speaker is not required by law or convention to resign their political party membership upon assumption of office.
  2. The Lok Sabha Speaker exercises a casting vote on all Money Bills and Constitutional Amendment Bills in order to ensure that the will of the elected government is reflected in the final count.
  3. The Lok Sabha Speaker's term is co-terminus with the life of the Lok Sabha and does not enjoy security of tenure comparable to that of a Supreme Court judge.
  4. Under Article 96 of the Constitution, the Lok Sabha Speaker may speak and vote in the first instance during the debate on a motion for their own removal, which is an exception to Article 100.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • NRAA-Funded Wild Rice Conservation Project Secures Major Milestone in Assam
    NRAA-Funded Wild Rice Conservation Project Secures Major Milestone in Assam

    The notification of Borjuli site in Sonitpur, Assam as a Biodiversity Heritage Site under an NRAA-funded wild rice conservation project is a named, verifiable fact. Biodiversity Heritage Sites and wild crop genetic resource conservation are tested Prelims topics.

  • India Advances Global Green Hydrogen Leadership under National Green Hydrogen Mission

    Under the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM), a landmark commercial deal for green ammonia and methanol export to Japan (IHI Corporation named) is a concrete outcome. India's green hydrogen ambitions and NGHM are recurring Prelims themes; this adds a factual export-deal hook.

  • NITI Aayog launches report on "Strategic Roadmap for Making Ayurveda Global"
    NITI Aayog launches report on "Strategic Roadmap for Making Ayurveda Global"

    A named NITI Aayog report on Ayurveda's global expansion is testable as a policy document. NITI Aayog reports, AYUSH sector initiatives, and traditional medicine diplomacy are recurring Prelims themes; the report's launch date and authoring body are clean factual hooks.

  • INDIAN NAVAL SHIP TRIKAND RESPONDS TO PIRACY ATTEMPT ON MV GOLDEN ARSENAL IN THE GULF OF ADEN

    A named Indian Navy anti-piracy operation with specific ship (INS Trikand — identified as a stealth frigate), vessel flag state (St. Vincent and the Grenadines), and location (Gulf of Aden) offers testable facts. India's maritime security operations are plausible Prelims hooks but appear occasionally, not frequently.

  • Union Minister Shri Shivraj Singh Chouhan launches nationwide ‘Viksit Bharat – G-Ram G Act’ from Andhra Pradesh with Chief Minister Shri Chandrababu Naidu and Deputy Chief Minister Shri Pawan Kalyan

    A newly named nationwide scheme launched by the Rural Development ministry that explicitly positions itself as moving 'beyond MGNREGA' is potentially testable. However, the excerpt lacks concrete numbers or statutory grounding, keeping it at 3 rather than 4.

  • MANAS: A Digital Shield Against Drugs

    MANAS is a named government digital initiative (national narcotics helpline) with a specific mandate under Nasha Mukt Bharat. Named government portals/helplines with specific functions are tested in Prelims, though this release is a backgrounder without new launch data.

  • VB-G RAM G Act comes into force across the country from today; “A historic day for rural India”: Shivraj Singh Chouhan

    The VB-G RAM G Act (likely a renamed/revised MGNREGA or rural employment guarantee framework) came into force across India from July 1, 2026. Key facts: national launch in Tirupati on July 2; revised wage rates notified with no daily wage below ₹300; national average wage increased by over 10%. A new central Act coming into force with specific wage figures is high-priority Prelims material.

  • India Achieves Major Milestone with Approval of Country’s First PinS Instrument Approach Procedure for Helicopter Operations

    DGCA approved India's first Private Point-in-Space (PinS) Instrument Approach Procedure for helicopter operations, implemented at Undavalli Heliport (developed by AAI). This is a named first in Indian aviation with a specific location and implementing body — classic Prelims material for science/tech and aviation sections.

  • 11 Years of Digital India: Better Healthcare & Digital Markets Making Lives Easier

    This release contains high-quality testable data: Greece is named as the 10th country to adopt UPI; every second real-time digital transaction globally is processed via India's UPI; 13 lakh Anganwadi workers connected via Poshan Tracker covering 9 crore beneficiaries. Multiple concrete facts that are prime Prelims material.

  • India, EU Advance Cooperation on Sustainable Ship Recycling; Three Indian Yards Ready for EU Recognition

    India has a 35.4% global market share in sustainable ship recycling. Three Indian ship-recycling yards are ready for EU recognition. India committed $8 billion to strengthen shipbuilding and recycling, with a target of recycling 16,000 ships. These are specific, verifiable figures in a sector where India leads globally — strong Prelims material on maritime/shipping sector.

  • GAGAN: Navigating India’s Skies with Precision

    Detailed backgrounder on GAGAN (GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation), India's Satellite-Based Augmentation System developed jointly by ISRO and Airports Authority of India (AAI). It enhances GPS accuracy for aviation, is certified to international standards, and supports satellite-based landing approaches. GAGAN is a recurring Prelims topic and this backgrounder consolidates key testable facts about its developers, purpose, and certification status.

  • The Hindu

    Latest PIB

    Latest from The Hindu

    Explore