UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — TRAI Releases Consultation Paper on “Proliferation of Public Wi-Fi Networks in India"

Q1. Under the PM-WANI framework, the Central Registry — which maintains the details of all App Providers, Public Data Office Aggregators (PDOAs) and Public Data Offices (PDOs) — is, to begin with, maintained by which one of the following bodies?

  • A. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
  • B. Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT)
  • C. National Informatics Centre (NIC)
  • D. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)

Q2. With reference to the PM-WANI framework, consider the following statements about its constituent entities:

  1. A Public Data Office (PDO) establishes, maintains and operates WANI-compliant Wi-Fi Access Points and delivers the last-mile broadband service to users.
  2. A Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA) performs the functions of Authorization and Accounting for the PDOs that it aggregates.
  3. An App Provider is required to obtain a telecom service licence from the Department of Telecommunications before it can commence operations under the framework.
  4. The Central Registry maintains the details of App Providers, PDOAs and PDOs operating under the framework.
  • A. 1, 2 and 4
  • B. 1, 3 and 4
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q3. Consider the following statements that distinguish a Public Data Office (PDO) from a Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA) under the PM-WANI framework:

  1. Unlike a PDOA, a PDO is not required to register with the Department of Telecommunications to commence operations.
  2. Unlike a PDO, a PDOA is required to pay an annual licence fee to the Department of Telecommunications.
  3. Unlike a PDO — which operates the Wi-Fi access point at the last mile — a PDOA aggregates multiple PDOs and performs the Authorization and Accounting functions.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997 (as amended), what is the maximum number of Members (excluding the Chairperson) that the Authority may comprise?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Six

Q5. In the context of the TRAI Act, 1997, the term 'recommendatory function' of the Authority under Section 11(1)(a) is best defined as a function under which:

  • A. The Authority advises the Central Government on specified matters such as the need for new service providers and the terms of licence, but its advice is not binding on the Government.
  • B. The Authority issues binding directions to service providers which can be appealed only before the Supreme Court.
  • C. The Authority adjudicates disputes between two or more telecom service providers and passes a binding award.
  • D. The Authority fixes and notifies telecommunication tariffs which are binding on all licensees.

Q6. With reference to the statutory mandate of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India under the TRAI Act, 1997 (as amended in 2000), which of the following are NOT functions assigned to TRAI itself?

  1. Fixation of tariffs at which telecommunication services are to be provided within India.
  2. Adjudication of disputes between a licensor and a licensee in the telecom sector.
  3. Making recommendations on the need for and timing of introduction of new service providers.
  4. Granting of licences to telecom service providers under the Telecommunications Act.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 3 only

Q7. Which of the following is/are NOT a target/objective explicitly enunciated under the National Digital Communications Policy, 2018?

  1. Providing universal broadband connectivity at 50 Mbps to every citizen.
  2. Enhancing the contribution of the Digital Communications sector to 8% of India's GDP.
  3. Positioning India among the top 10 nations on the ITU ICT Development Index by 2022.
  4. Enabling the deployment of 10 million public Wi-Fi hotspots by 2022.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 4

Q8. Match List I (NDCP-2018 target parameter) with List II (Quantitative target) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

  • A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  • B. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  • C. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  • D. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

Q9. The target of enabling the deployment of 10 million public Wi-Fi hotspots in India by 2022 was first articulated under which one of the following?

  • A. National Telecom Policy, 1999
  • B. Digital India Programme, 2015
  • C. National Digital Communications Policy, 2018 (under the 'Connect India' Mission)
  • D. Bharat 6G Vision Document, 2023

Q10. With reference to the Telecommunications Act, 2023 as compared to the legislative framework it replaced, consider the following statements:

  1. The Act repealed both the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 and the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933.
  2. Unlike the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, the 2023 Act replaces the licensing regime with an 'authorisation' regime granted by the Central Government under Section 3.
  3. The Act removes all powers of the Central Government to intercept telecommunication messages or suspend services that existed under the earlier framework.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q11. Match List I with List II in the correct chronological order of enactment and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

  • A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  • B. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  • C. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  • D. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Q12. Match List I (Provision of the Telecommunications Act, 2023) with List II (Subject matter) and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

  • A. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
  • B. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  • C. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
  • D. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

Q13. With reference to the TRAI Consultation Paper on the 'Proliferation of Public Wi-Fi Networks in India' (April 2026), which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?

  1. It was issued as Consultation Paper No. 07/2026 by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India.
  2. It examines public Wi-Fi deployment experiences of countries such as South Korea, the European Union, the United Kingdom and Singapore.
  3. It was released by the Department of Telecommunications under the Ministry of Communications, on the recommendations of the TRAI.
  4. Among the issues raised are inter-operator roaming and billing interoperability for public Wi-Fi users.
  • A. 3 only
  • B. 1 and 3
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 1, 2 and 4

Q14. As per the data cited in the context of TRAI's April 2026 consultation paper on public Wi-Fi, approximately how many Public Data Offices (PDOs)/public Wi-Fi hotspots were operational under the PM-WANI framework as on 28 February 2026?

  • A. About 1.05 lakh
  • B. About 2.18 lakh
  • C. About 4.09 lakh
  • D. About 10 lakh

Q15. Which one of the following is the flagship Government of India framework specifically aimed at proliferating public Wi-Fi hotspots through unlicensed Public Data Offices, and forms the principal focus of TRAI's April 2026 consultation paper?

  • A. BharatNet
  • B. Digital India Mission
  • C. PM-WANI (Prime Minister's Wi-Fi Access Network Interface)
  • D. Bharat 6G Vision

Q16. Which one of the following correctly identifies the three foundational principles on which the 'Bharat 6G Vision' document (2023) is based?

  • A. Affordability, Sustainability and Ubiquity
  • B. Connectivity, Security and Indigenisation
  • C. Universal Access, Innovation and Self-Reliance
  • D. Affordability, Interoperability and Net-Neutrality

Q17. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

  • A. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
  • B. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  • C. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
  • D. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

Q18. With reference to India's broadband and 6G roadmap, consider the following statements:

  1. The Bharat 6G Vision document envisages India to be a frontline contributor in design, development and deployment of 6G technology by 2030.
  2. The National Digital Communications Policy, 2018 set targets of 10 million public Wi-Fi hotspots by 2022 and 50 million by 2030.
  3. The Bharat 6G Alliance was launched by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).
  4. The ITU recommendation on the 6G Vision Framework, in which India played a key role, was approved in 2023.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 2, 3 and 4

Q19. With reference to the delicensing of the lower 6 GHz spectrum band in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Department of Telecommunications released draft rules in May 2025 to delicense the 5925–6425 MHz band for Wi-Fi use.
  2. The delicensing under the draft rules is restricted to Low Power Indoor (LPI) and Very Low Power Outdoor (VLP) device categories.
  3. Use of the proposed delicensed 6 GHz spectrum will be on a protected and exclusive (interference-free) basis for Wi-Fi devices.
  4. The 2.4 GHz band, also used by Wi-Fi, has already been delicensed in India through earlier GSR notifications of the Department of Telecommunications.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 1 and 3 only

Q20. Match List I (Wi-Fi generation) with List II (spectrum/technical attribute) and select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  • B. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  • C. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
  • D. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

Q21. In India, statutory notifications delicensing spectrum bands for Wi-Fi use (such as the 2.4 GHz band and the proposed 5925–6425 MHz band) are issued under the authority of which one of the following?

  • A. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
  • B. Wireless Planning and Coordination (WPC) Wing of the Department of Telecommunications
  • C. Telecommunication Engineering Centre (TEC)
  • D. Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)

Q22. Which one of the following statements best describes the 'Digital Bharat Nidhi' (DBN)?

  • A. A non-lapsable fund constituted under the Telecommunications Act, 2023, which replaced the erstwhile Universal Service Obligation Fund
  • B. A consolidated grant-in-aid devolved by the Finance Commission to State governments for last-mile rural broadband
  • C. A trust established under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 and managed by Bharat Broadband Network Limited
  • D. A statutory corpus created under the Information Technology Act, 2000 for promoting Common Services Centres

Q23. With reference to the implementation architecture of the BharatNet / Amended BharatNet Programme, consider the following organisations: 1. Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL) 2. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) 3. CSC e-Governance Services India Limited 4. National Informatics Centre Services Inc. (NICSI) Which of the above has/have NOT been designated as an implementing or executing agency for BharatNet?

  1. Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL)
  2. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
  3. CSC e-Governance Services India Limited
  4. National Informatics Centre Services Inc. (NICSI)
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 4 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q24. Consider the following statements regarding the BharatNet project: 1. Its three implementation phases were approved by the Telecom Commission in 2016. 2. The Amended BharatNet Programme (2023) envisages optical fibre connectivity to Gram Panchayats in a ring topology with an IP-MPLS network. 3. Under the Amended BharatNet Programme, BSNL has been designated as the single Project Management Agency for operation and maintenance. 4. The Amended BharatNet Programme is restricted to Gram Panchayats and explicitly excludes optical fibre connectivity to non-GP villages. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Its three implementation phases were approved by the Telecom Commission in 2016.
  2. The Amended BharatNet Programme (2023) envisages optical fibre connectivity to Gram Panchayats in a ring topology with an IP-MPLS network.
  3. Under the Amended BharatNet Programme, BSNL has been designated as the single Project Management Agency for operation and maintenance.
  4. The Amended BharatNet Programme is restricted to Gram Panchayats and explicitly excludes optical fibre connectivity to non-GP villages.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • NRAA-Funded Wild Rice Conservation Project Secures Major Milestone in Assam
    NRAA-Funded Wild Rice Conservation Project Secures Major Milestone in Assam

    The notification of Borjuli site in Sonitpur, Assam as a Biodiversity Heritage Site under an NRAA-funded wild rice conservation project is a named, verifiable fact. Biodiversity Heritage Sites and wild crop genetic resource conservation are tested Prelims topics.

  • India Advances Global Green Hydrogen Leadership under National Green Hydrogen Mission

    Under the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM), a landmark commercial deal for green ammonia and methanol export to Japan (IHI Corporation named) is a concrete outcome. India's green hydrogen ambitions and NGHM are recurring Prelims themes; this adds a factual export-deal hook.

  • NITI Aayog launches report on "Strategic Roadmap for Making Ayurveda Global"
    NITI Aayog launches report on "Strategic Roadmap for Making Ayurveda Global"

    A named NITI Aayog report on Ayurveda's global expansion is testable as a policy document. NITI Aayog reports, AYUSH sector initiatives, and traditional medicine diplomacy are recurring Prelims themes; the report's launch date and authoring body are clean factual hooks.

  • INDIAN NAVAL SHIP TRIKAND RESPONDS TO PIRACY ATTEMPT ON MV GOLDEN ARSENAL IN THE GULF OF ADEN

    A named Indian Navy anti-piracy operation with specific ship (INS Trikand — identified as a stealth frigate), vessel flag state (St. Vincent and the Grenadines), and location (Gulf of Aden) offers testable facts. India's maritime security operations are plausible Prelims hooks but appear occasionally, not frequently.

  • Union Minister Shri Shivraj Singh Chouhan launches nationwide ‘Viksit Bharat – G-Ram G Act’ from Andhra Pradesh with Chief Minister Shri Chandrababu Naidu and Deputy Chief Minister Shri Pawan Kalyan

    A newly named nationwide scheme launched by the Rural Development ministry that explicitly positions itself as moving 'beyond MGNREGA' is potentially testable. However, the excerpt lacks concrete numbers or statutory grounding, keeping it at 3 rather than 4.

  • MANAS: A Digital Shield Against Drugs

    MANAS is a named government digital initiative (national narcotics helpline) with a specific mandate under Nasha Mukt Bharat. Named government portals/helplines with specific functions are tested in Prelims, though this release is a backgrounder without new launch data.

  • VB-G RAM G Act comes into force across the country from today; “A historic day for rural India”: Shivraj Singh Chouhan

    The VB-G RAM G Act (likely a renamed/revised MGNREGA or rural employment guarantee framework) came into force across India from July 1, 2026. Key facts: national launch in Tirupati on July 2; revised wage rates notified with no daily wage below ₹300; national average wage increased by over 10%. A new central Act coming into force with specific wage figures is high-priority Prelims material.

  • India Achieves Major Milestone with Approval of Country’s First PinS Instrument Approach Procedure for Helicopter Operations

    DGCA approved India's first Private Point-in-Space (PinS) Instrument Approach Procedure for helicopter operations, implemented at Undavalli Heliport (developed by AAI). This is a named first in Indian aviation with a specific location and implementing body — classic Prelims material for science/tech and aviation sections.

  • 11 Years of Digital India: Better Healthcare & Digital Markets Making Lives Easier

    This release contains high-quality testable data: Greece is named as the 10th country to adopt UPI; every second real-time digital transaction globally is processed via India's UPI; 13 lakh Anganwadi workers connected via Poshan Tracker covering 9 crore beneficiaries. Multiple concrete facts that are prime Prelims material.

  • India, EU Advance Cooperation on Sustainable Ship Recycling; Three Indian Yards Ready for EU Recognition

    India has a 35.4% global market share in sustainable ship recycling. Three Indian ship-recycling yards are ready for EU recognition. India committed $8 billion to strengthen shipbuilding and recycling, with a target of recycling 16,000 ships. These are specific, verifiable figures in a sector where India leads globally — strong Prelims material on maritime/shipping sector.

  • GAGAN: Navigating India’s Skies with Precision

    Detailed backgrounder on GAGAN (GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation), India's Satellite-Based Augmentation System developed jointly by ISRO and Airports Authority of India (AAI). It enhances GPS accuracy for aviation, is certified to international standards, and supports satellite-based landing approaches. GAGAN is a recurring Prelims topic and this backgrounder consolidates key testable facts about its developers, purpose, and certification status.

    • The Hindu

    Latest PIB

    Latest from The Hindu

    Explore