UPSC Prelims Practice Questions — Proposed anti-doping law amendments to criminalise organised doping activities placed for public consultation

Q1. With reference to India's anti-doping legal framework, consider the following statements:

  1. While the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 created a statutory regulatory regime for the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA), the 2026 draft amendments placed for public consultation propose, for the first time, criminal penalties for trafficking and administration of prohibited substances.
  2. Unlike the 2022 Act, the 2026 draft amendments propose to subject athletes who fail doping tests to direct criminal prosecution in lieu of the existing anti-doping rule violation (ADRV) framework.
  3. The National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill, 2025 was passed by Parliament before the draft criminalisation amendments of 2026 were placed in the public domain for stakeholder consultation.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. Which one of the following is the nodal Union Ministry that has placed the 2026 draft amendments to the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 in the public domain for stakeholder consultation?

  • A. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
  • B. Ministry of Home Affairs
  • C. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • D. Ministry of Law and Justice

Q3. With reference to the changes brought about by the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 as compared to the position prevailing before its enactment, consider the following statements:

  1. Prior to the 2022 Act, the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) functioned as a society set up in 2009 and not as a statutory body.
  2. The 2022 Act conferred statutory status on the National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL), which earlier operated as a non-statutory testing facility.
  3. With the enactment of the 2022 Act, India became the first country in Asia to enact a dedicated statutory anti-doping law.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. With reference to the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022, which of the following statements correctly describe the provisions of the Act?

  1. The National Board for Anti-Doping in Sports oversees the activities of NADA and makes recommendations to the central government on anti-doping regulations.
  2. The National Board for Anti-Doping in Sports is chaired ex officio by the Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  3. The Act empowers the central government to establish additional National Dope Testing Laboratories besides the existing NDTL.
  4. The scope of the Act extends to athletes as well as athlete support personnel.
  • A. 1, 3 and 4
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q5. Which one of the following Union Ministries is the administrative parent ministry of the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) of India?

  • A. Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • C. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
  • D. Ministry of Education

Q6. In the context of the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA), the term 'Registered Testing Pool (RTP)' refers to which one of the following?

  • A. A list of accredited laboratories authorised to conduct dope sample analysis in India
  • B. A roster of high-priority elite athletes who must furnish whereabouts information and are subject to in- and out-of-competition testing
  • C. A national database of substances and methods prohibited under the WADA Code
  • D. A panel of arbitrators empanelled to hear anti-doping rule violation appeals

Q7. With reference to the international anti-doping framework, which one of the following best describes the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)?

  • A. A specialised agency of the United Nations established under the UNESCO Convention against Doping in Sport, 2005
  • B. A foundation established under Swiss private law, jointly funded by governments and the Olympic Movement
  • C. A standing technical committee of the International Olympic Committee headquartered in Lausanne
  • D. An intergovernmental treaty body of the Council of Europe constituted under the Anti-Doping Convention, 1989

Q8. Which one of the following is the only international treaty that provides the legal framework under which governments can address specific areas of the World Anti-Doping Code?

  • A. World Anti-Doping Code, 2003
  • B. Council of Europe Anti-Doping Convention, 1989
  • C. UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport, 2005
  • D. Copenhagen Declaration on Anti-Doping in Sport, 2003

Q9. With reference to the National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL), which of the following is/are NOT among its mandated functions?

  1. Conducting dope testing of urine and blood samples collected from athletes
  2. Operating as a WADA-approved Athlete Passport Management Unit (APMU) for managing Athlete Biological Passports
  3. Adjudicating Anti-Doping Rule Violations and imposing sanctions on athletes found guilty of doping
  4. Registering and licensing pharmaceutical manufacturers that produce substances on the WADA Prohibited List
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q10. In the context of India's anti-doping framework, the term 'Athlete Biological Passport (ABP)', for which NDTL has been approved by WADA as a management unit, refers to:

  • A. A WADA-issued certificate declaring an athlete drug-free and valid for participation in international competitions
  • B. An individual electronic record that monitors selected biological markers of an athlete over time to reveal the effects of doping indirectly rather than detecting the prohibited substance itself
  • C. A travel-document waiver permitting elite athletes to carry therapeutic-use exempted medicines across international borders
  • D. A central registry maintained by NADA listing athletes who have served suspensions for Anti-Doping Rule Violations

Q11. The National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill, 2025, which inter alia provides operational independence to the Director General of the National Anti-Doping Agency, was piloted in Parliament by which one of the following Union Ministries?

  • A. Ministry of Home Affairs
  • B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • C. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
  • D. Ministry of Law and Justice

Q12. With reference to the National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Act, 2025, which of the following is/are NOT a feature introduced by the amendment?

  1. The Director General and other members of NADA are granted operational independence from sports federations, Olympic committees and government departments.
  2. Accreditation of testing laboratories by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) is made mandatory.
  3. Direct appeals to the Court of Arbitration for Sport are permitted in international-level cases.
  4. Athletes who fail a dope test are made criminally liable with imprisonment up to five years.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q13. With reference to the draft amendments (May 2026) to the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 placed in the public domain by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, consider the following acts: 1. Trafficking and unauthorised distribution of prohibited substances or methods. 2. Administration of a banned substance to an athlete by support personnel. 3. An athlete testing positive for a prohibited substance in an in-competition sample. 4. Commercial advertising or promotion of prohibited substances. Which of the above is/are proposed to be criminalised under the draft amendments?

  1. Trafficking and unauthorised distribution of prohibited substances or methods.
  2. Administration of a banned substance to an athlete by support personnel.
  3. An athlete testing positive for a prohibited substance in an in-competition sample.
  4. Commercial advertising or promotion of prohibited substances.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q14. Under the draft amendments (2026) to the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022, the base term of imprisonment proposed for offences such as trafficking and unauthorised distribution of prohibited substances may extend up to a maximum of how many years?

  • A. Three years
  • B. Five years
  • C. Seven years
  • D. Ten years

Q15. Under the World Anti-Doping Code as applied by NADA India, what does a Therapeutic Use Exemption (TUE) granted to an athlete authorise?

  • A. Use of a substance or method on the WADA Prohibited List strictly to treat a documented legitimate medical condition
  • B. A blanket exemption from all out-of-competition testing for the duration of an injury rehabilitation
  • C. A permanent waiver of the athlete's whereabouts filing obligations once it is granted
  • D. Complete immunity from any anti-doping rule violation while the prescribed medication is in use

Q16. Within the WADA Prohibited List, which is the first category listed under 'Substances Prohibited At All Times' (both in- and out-of-competition)?

  • A. S0 – Non-Approved Substances
  • B. S1 – Anabolic Agents
  • C. S2 – Peptide Hormones, Growth Factors, Related Substances and Mimetics
  • D. S4 – Hormone and Metabolic Modulators
  • NRAA-Funded Wild Rice Conservation Project Secures Major Milestone in Assam
    NRAA-Funded Wild Rice Conservation Project Secures Major Milestone in Assam

    The notification of Borjuli site in Sonitpur, Assam as a Biodiversity Heritage Site under an NRAA-funded wild rice conservation project is a named, verifiable fact. Biodiversity Heritage Sites and wild crop genetic resource conservation are tested Prelims topics.

  • India Advances Global Green Hydrogen Leadership under National Green Hydrogen Mission

    Under the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM), a landmark commercial deal for green ammonia and methanol export to Japan (IHI Corporation named) is a concrete outcome. India's green hydrogen ambitions and NGHM are recurring Prelims themes; this adds a factual export-deal hook.

  • NITI Aayog launches report on "Strategic Roadmap for Making Ayurveda Global"
    NITI Aayog launches report on "Strategic Roadmap for Making Ayurveda Global"

    A named NITI Aayog report on Ayurveda's global expansion is testable as a policy document. NITI Aayog reports, AYUSH sector initiatives, and traditional medicine diplomacy are recurring Prelims themes; the report's launch date and authoring body are clean factual hooks.

  • INDIAN NAVAL SHIP TRIKAND RESPONDS TO PIRACY ATTEMPT ON MV GOLDEN ARSENAL IN THE GULF OF ADEN

    A named Indian Navy anti-piracy operation with specific ship (INS Trikand — identified as a stealth frigate), vessel flag state (St. Vincent and the Grenadines), and location (Gulf of Aden) offers testable facts. India's maritime security operations are plausible Prelims hooks but appear occasionally, not frequently.

  • Union Minister Shri Shivraj Singh Chouhan launches nationwide ‘Viksit Bharat – G-Ram G Act’ from Andhra Pradesh with Chief Minister Shri Chandrababu Naidu and Deputy Chief Minister Shri Pawan Kalyan

    A newly named nationwide scheme launched by the Rural Development ministry that explicitly positions itself as moving 'beyond MGNREGA' is potentially testable. However, the excerpt lacks concrete numbers or statutory grounding, keeping it at 3 rather than 4.

  • MANAS: A Digital Shield Against Drugs

    MANAS is a named government digital initiative (national narcotics helpline) with a specific mandate under Nasha Mukt Bharat. Named government portals/helplines with specific functions are tested in Prelims, though this release is a backgrounder without new launch data.

  • VB-G RAM G Act comes into force across the country from today; “A historic day for rural India”: Shivraj Singh Chouhan

    The VB-G RAM G Act (likely a renamed/revised MGNREGA or rural employment guarantee framework) came into force across India from July 1, 2026. Key facts: national launch in Tirupati on July 2; revised wage rates notified with no daily wage below ₹300; national average wage increased by over 10%. A new central Act coming into force with specific wage figures is high-priority Prelims material.

  • India Achieves Major Milestone with Approval of Country’s First PinS Instrument Approach Procedure for Helicopter Operations

    DGCA approved India's first Private Point-in-Space (PinS) Instrument Approach Procedure for helicopter operations, implemented at Undavalli Heliport (developed by AAI). This is a named first in Indian aviation with a specific location and implementing body — classic Prelims material for science/tech and aviation sections.

  • 11 Years of Digital India: Better Healthcare & Digital Markets Making Lives Easier

    This release contains high-quality testable data: Greece is named as the 10th country to adopt UPI; every second real-time digital transaction globally is processed via India's UPI; 13 lakh Anganwadi workers connected via Poshan Tracker covering 9 crore beneficiaries. Multiple concrete facts that are prime Prelims material.

  • India, EU Advance Cooperation on Sustainable Ship Recycling; Three Indian Yards Ready for EU Recognition

    India has a 35.4% global market share in sustainable ship recycling. Three Indian ship-recycling yards are ready for EU recognition. India committed $8 billion to strengthen shipbuilding and recycling, with a target of recycling 16,000 ships. These are specific, verifiable figures in a sector where India leads globally — strong Prelims material on maritime/shipping sector.

  • GAGAN: Navigating India’s Skies with Precision

    Detailed backgrounder on GAGAN (GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation), India's Satellite-Based Augmentation System developed jointly by ISRO and Airports Authority of India (AAI). It enhances GPS accuracy for aviation, is certified to international standards, and supports satellite-based landing approaches. GAGAN is a recurring Prelims topic and this backgrounder consolidates key testable facts about its developers, purpose, and certification status.

  • The Hindu

    Latest PIB

    Latest from The Hindu

    Explore