Current Affairs MCQs for UPSC Prelims — February 2026

Q1. Among the categories of UNESCO-verified damaged cultural sites in Ukraine (as of June 2026), which one accounts for the single largest number of sites?

  • A. Buildings of historical and/or artistic interest
  • B. Religious sites
  • C. Museums
  • D. Monuments

Q2. As of 10 June 2026, approximately how many cultural sites in Ukraine had UNESCO verified as damaged since the start of the full-scale war?

  • A. Around 230
  • B. Around 360
  • C. Around 540
  • D. Around 820

Q3. Under the authority of which one of the following bodies is a property inscribed on the UNESCO 'List of World Heritage in Danger', as applied to Ukrainian sites such as 'L'viv – the Ensemble of the Historic Centre'?

  • A. The UNESCO World Heritage Committee
  • B. The United Nations Security Council
  • C. The United Nations General Assembly
  • D. The International Court of Justice

Q4. As officially reported, how many Heads of State or Government participated in the India AI Impact Summit 2026 held at Bharat Mandapam?

  • A. More than 10
  • B. More than 22
  • C. More than 40
  • D. More than 60

Q5. How many members constitute the expert committee appointed by the NCLT in February 2026 to assess the progress of construction of Jaypee Infratech projects under the approved resolution plan?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Five
  • D. Seven

Q6. With reference to the India AI Impact Summit 2026, which of the following are correctly identified as its three declared core pillars? 1. People 2. Planet 3. Prosperity 4. Progress Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. People
  2. Planet
  3. Prosperity
  4. Progress
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q7. With reference to the India AI Impact Summit 2026, consider the following statements: 1. It was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. 2. It was inaugurated by the Vice-President of India on 19 February 2026. 3. Its declared theme was 'AI for All'. 4. It witnessed participation from more than 100 countries. Which of the statements given above are NOT correct?

  1. It was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
  2. It was inaugurated by the Vice-President of India on 19 February 2026.
  3. Its declared theme was 'AI for All'.
  4. It witnessed participation from more than 100 countries.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 1 and 4
  • D. 2 and 4

Q8. Who, as the sole incumbent in 2026, heads the Securities and Exchange Board of India and has publicly flagged the absence of merchant bankers as a binding constraint on the SME capital market?

  • A. Madhabi Puri Buch
  • B. Tuhin Kanta Pandey
  • C. Ajay Tyagi
  • D. U.K. Sinha

Q9. According to the Centre's submission to the Supreme Court in February 2026 opposing Sonam Wangchuk's release on health grounds, how many times was he medically examined during his detention in Jodhpur Central Jail?

  • A. 12
  • B. 18
  • C. 24
  • D. 30

Q10. With reference to the criminal conspiracy regime under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS) as compared with the erstwhile Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC), consider the following statements: 1. Section 61 of the BNS consolidates within a single section both the definition and the punishment of criminal conspiracy, which under the IPC were carried in two separate sections (120A and 120B). 2. The BNS, 2023 came into force on 1 July 2024, replacing the IPC, 1860. 3. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, which was struck down by the Supreme Court, has been re-enacted in substance under the BNS, 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Section 61 of the BNS consolidates within a single section both the definition and the punishment of criminal conspiracy, which under the IPC were carried in two separate sections (120A and 120B).
  2. The BNS, 2023 came into force on 1 July 2024, replacing the IPC, 1860.
  3. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, which was struck down by the Supreme Court, has been re-enacted in substance under the BNS, 2023.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q11. The provision relating to criminal conspiracy, which was earlier housed under Sections 120A and 120B of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, now stands consolidated under which one of the following provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

  • A. Section 48
  • B. Section 61
  • C. Section 103
  • D. Section 152

Q12. Section 66 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, read with Section 43, criminalises certain acts when done with dishonest or fraudulent intent. With reference to this provision, consider the following acts: 1. Securing access to a computer or computer system without the permission of its owner. 2. Downloading or copying data from a computer database without authorisation. 3. Publishing defamatory statements at a public meeting in the physical world. 4. Introducing a computer contaminant or computer virus into a computer system. Which of the above is/are correctly identified as offences punishable under Section 66 of the IT Act, 2000?

  1. Securing access to a computer or computer system without the permission of its owner.
  2. Downloading or copying data from a computer database without authorisation.
  3. Publishing defamatory statements at a public meeting in the physical world.
  4. Introducing a computer contaminant or computer virus into a computer system.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 4
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q13. In the FIR registered by the Delhi Police Special Cell in 2026 over the alleged unauthorised circulation of former Army Chief General M.M. Naravane's unpublished memoir 'Four Stars of Destiny', the criminal conspiracy charge has been invoked primarily under which one of the following provisions?

  • A. Section 120A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • B. Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
  • C. Section 61 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
  • D. Section 66 of the Information Technology Act, 2000
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