Environment MCQs for UPSC Prelims — January 2026

Q1. Under India's Green Steel Taxonomy, the highest (Five-Star) green rating is awarded to steel plants whose CO2-equivalent emission intensity is below which one of the following thresholds (tonnes of CO2e per tonne of finished steel)?

  • A. 1.0
  • B. 1.6
  • C. 2.0
  • D. 2.2

Q2. With reference to the emission-accounting boundary defined in India's Green Steel Taxonomy (2024), consider the following: 1. Scope-1 direct emissions of the steel plant 2. Scope-2 emissions from purchased electricity 3. Embodied emissions in purchased raw materials and intermediary products 4. Upstream emissions from iron-ore mining Which of the above are correctly identified as items included within the taxonomy's emission scope?

  1. Scope-1 direct emissions of the steel plant
  2. Scope-2 emissions from purchased electricity
  3. Embodied emissions in purchased raw materials and intermediary products
  4. Upstream emissions from iron-ore mining
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q3. How many Task Forces did the Ministry of Steel constitute in February 2025 to recommend measures across the steel-industry decarbonisation chain (covering levers such as energy efficiency, green hydrogen, CCUS and biochar)?

  • A. 9
  • B. 11
  • C. 14
  • D. 17

Q4. With reference to India's Green Steel Taxonomy, which one of the following has been designated as the nodal agency for Measurement, Reporting and Verification (MRV) and for issuing greenness certificates and star ratings to steel producers?

  • A. Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
  • B. Joint Plant Committee (JPC)
  • C. National Institute of Secondary Steel Technology (NISST)
  • D. Steel Research and Technology Mission of India (SRTMI)

Q5. Which one of the following is the nodal ministry of the Government of India responsible for communicating India's Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) to the UNFCCC?

  • A. Ministry of External Affairs
  • B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • C. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
  • D. Ministry of Finance

Q6. In India's revised NDC for 2031-2035 referenced by the Economic Survey 2025-26, the headline target for the share of non-fossil fuel-based installed electric power capacity is:

  • A. 50% by 2030
  • B. 55% by 2035
  • C. 60% by 2035
  • D. 65% by 2040

Q7. With reference to Chapter 10 ('Climate and Environment: Adaptation Matters') of the Economic Survey 2025-26, consider the following statements: 1. It argues that mitigation should be subservient to adaptation in India's climate strategy. 2. It states that economic development is itself a form of climate adaptation. 3. It recommends an immediate, economy-wide binding domestic carbon tax on all industrial sectors as the principal climate policy instrument. 4. It highlights that India's per capita carbon emission is about one-third of the global average. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It argues that mitigation should be subservient to adaptation in India's climate strategy.
  2. It states that economic development is itself a form of climate adaptation.
  3. It recommends an immediate, economy-wide binding domestic carbon tax on all industrial sectors as the principal climate policy instrument.
  4. It highlights that India's per capita carbon emission is about one-third of the global average.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 1 and 3

Q8. India's revised Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) for the period 2031-2035, referenced by the Economic Survey 2025-26, was approved by which one of the following?

  • A. Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister
  • B. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
  • C. Prime Minister's Council on Climate Change
  • D. Apex Committee for Implementation of the Paris Agreement (AIPA)

Q9. With reference to India's revised Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) for the period 2031-2035 communicated to the UNFCCC, consider the following: 1. Reduction of emission intensity of GDP by 47% from 2005 level by 2035. 2. 60% share of non-fossil fuel-based installed electric power capacity by 2035. 3. Achievement of economy-wide net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2050. 4. Complete phase-out of coal-based power generation by 2040. Which of the above is/are correctly identified as targets under the revised NDC?

  1. Reduction of emission intensity of GDP by 47% from 2005 level by 2035.
  2. 60% share of non-fossil fuel-based installed electric power capacity by 2035.
  3. Achievement of economy-wide net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2050.
  4. Complete phase-out of coal-based power generation by 2040.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 2 only

Q10. Among the Schedules of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (as amended), which one currently accords the highest level of legal protection to species such as the Indian leopard?

  • A. Schedule I
  • B. Schedule II
  • C. Schedule III
  • D. Schedule IV

Q11. As cited in the State government's justification for the Wildlife Protection (Maharashtra Amendment) Bill, 2026, approximately how many human deaths in the preceding five years were attributed to human-leopard conflict in Maharashtra?

  • A. About 45
  • B. Over 110
  • C. Over 300
  • D. Over 500

Q12. Which of the following is the Union Ministry that operationalises the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 — the statute under which the Gujarat farmer was booked in January 2026 for killing a leopard?

  • A. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
  • B. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
  • C. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • D. Ministry of Rural Development

Q13. In the context of the recent debate over the leopard's status under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, consider the following statements: 1. The Maharashtra Cabinet has approved a proposal to reclassify leopards from Schedule I to Schedule II under the Act. 2. The Wildlife Protection (Maharashtra Amendment) Bill, 2026 was passed by the State Legislative Assembly with the explicit objective of authorising the issuance of permits to hunt leopards. 3. Any such reclassification of a species under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 requires the approval of the Union Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Maharashtra Cabinet has approved a proposal to reclassify leopards from Schedule I to Schedule II under the Act.
  2. The Wildlife Protection (Maharashtra Amendment) Bill, 2026 was passed by the State Legislative Assembly with the explicit objective of authorising the issuance of permits to hunt leopards.
  3. Any such reclassification of a species under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 requires the approval of the Union Government.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q14. With reference to the legal framework under which a Gujarat farmer was booked in January 2026 for killing a leopard in self-defence, consider the following statements about the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: 1. The leopard is listed in Schedule I of the Act. 2. Under Section 11(2), the killing or wounding of any wild animal in good faith in defence of any person shall not be an offence. 3. Only the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State can authorise the hunting of a Schedule I animal that has become dangerous to human life. 4. An animal killed in self-defence under Section 11(2) automatically becomes the personal property of the person who killed it. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. The leopard is listed in Schedule I of the Act.
  2. Under Section 11(2), the killing or wounding of any wild animal in good faith in defence of any person shall not be an offence.
  3. Only the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State can authorise the hunting of a Schedule I animal that has become dangerous to human life.
  4. An animal killed in self-defence under Section 11(2) automatically becomes the personal property of the person who killed it.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q15. The 2026 amendment streamlining the consent-to-establish and consent-to-operate regime for industries has been notified primarily under which one of the following statutory frameworks?

  • A. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 read with the EIA Notification, 2006
  • B. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 read with the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
  • C. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 read with the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
  • D. The Factories Act, 1948 read with the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016

Q16. In the context of the amended Uniform Consent Guidelines, 2026, the term 'Registered Environmental Auditor' refers to which one of the following?

  • A. A chartered accountant empanelled by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India to audit the financial statements of State Pollution Control Boards
  • B. An officer of the Indian Forest Service deputed to verify carbon-sequestration claims under the Green Credit Programme
  • C. An environment auditor empanelled under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, authorised to undertake site verification and inspection in place of, or alongside, State Pollution Control Board officers
  • D. A panel of experts notified by the National Green Tribunal to conduct third-party audits of environmentally compensated industries

Q17. With reference to the 2026 amendment to the Uniform Consent Guidelines as compared to the earlier consent regime under the Air and Water Acts, consider the following statements: 1. The amendment introduces a single integrated application that combines Consent under the Air and Water Acts with authorisations under the Waste Management Rules, replacing separate filings. 2. States and Union Territories have been empowered to prescribe a one-time Consent to Operate fee covering a period that may extend up to 25 years. 3. The amendment abolishes State Pollution Control Boards and transfers all consent-granting powers exclusively to the Central Pollution Control Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The amendment introduces a single integrated application that combines Consent under the Air and Water Acts with authorisations under the Waste Management Rules, replacing separate filings.
  2. States and Union Territories have been empowered to prescribe a one-time Consent to Operate fee covering a period that may extend up to 25 years.
  3. The amendment abolishes State Pollution Control Boards and transfers all consent-granting powers exclusively to the Central Pollution Control Board.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q18. Under the amended Uniform Consent Guidelines, 2026, which one of the following is the principal authority that receives and processes the single consolidated consent-cum-authorisation application from an industry located in a State?

  • A. Central Pollution Control Board
  • B. State Pollution Control Board
  • C. State Environment Impact Assessment Authority
  • D. District Environment Committee

Q19. Which one of the following Ministries notified the 2026 amendment to the Uniform Consent Guidelines that introduces a single integrated application for industrial environmental consents?

  • A. Ministry of Jal Shakti
  • B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • C. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
  • D. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Q20. Loss and Damage associated with the adverse effects of climate change was given explicit treaty-level recognition under which one of the following provisions of the Paris Agreement?

  • A. Article 4
  • B. Article 6
  • C. Article 8
  • D. Article 14

Q21. In the vocabulary of the UNFCCC, the term 'slow-onset events' refers most precisely to which one of the following?

  • A. Sudden hydro-meteorological extremes such as cyclones, cloudbursts and flash floods
  • B. Gradual climate change impacts such as sea-level rise, ocean acidification, glacial retreat, salinisation, desertification and loss of biodiversity
  • C. All geophysical hazards including earthquakes, tsunamis and volcanic eruptions
  • D. Industrial and technological accidents that exclusively cause non-economic losses

Q22. With reference to the Warsaw International Mechanism (WIM) and the Fund for Responding to Loss and Damage (FRLD), consider the following statements: 1. The WIM was established at COP19 (2013), whereas the FRLD was agreed at COP27 (2022) and operationalised at COP28 (2023). 2. The Republic of the Philippines has been selected as the host country of the Board of the FRLD. 3. Both the WIM and the FRLD function under the authority of the World Trade Organization. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The WIM was established at COP19 (2013), whereas the FRLD was agreed at COP27 (2022) and operationalised at COP28 (2023).
  2. The Republic of the Philippines has been selected as the host country of the Board of the FRLD.
  3. Both the WIM and the FRLD function under the authority of the World Trade Organization.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q23. Which one of the following institutions has been invited to serve as the interim host of the Fund for Responding to Loss and Damage (FRLD), providing trustee and secretariat services for an initial four-year period?

  • A. Green Climate Fund
  • B. United Nations Environment Programme
  • C. World Bank
  • D. Global Environment Facility

Q24. With reference to Article 8 of the Paris Agreement on Loss and Damage, consider the following items: 1. Early warning systems 2. Slow onset events 3. Risk insurance facilities and climate risk pooling 4. Mandatory liability-based compensation from developed to developing countries Which of the above is/are correctly identified as areas of cooperation and facilitation under Article 8?

  1. Early warning systems
  2. Slow onset events
  3. Risk insurance facilities and climate risk pooling
  4. Mandatory liability-based compensation from developed to developing countries
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q25. Under which of the following Acts was the Bhagirathi Eco-Sensitive Zone — within which much of the Char Dham road widening in Uttarkashi district falls — notified in the Gazette of India in December 2012?

  • A. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
  • B. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
  • C. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  • D. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002

Q26. With reference to the Char Dham road project's evolution before the Supreme Court, consider the following statements: 1. The High Powered Committee chairman (Ravi Chopra) recommended a carriageway width of 5.5 metres in ecologically sensitive stretches, citing the MoRTH circular of March 2018. 2. In 2021, the Supreme Court permitted double-lane with paved shoulders (~10 m carriageway) for the project, accepting the Centre's strategic-border argument. 3. The Supreme Court subsequently constituted an oversight committee headed by former Justice A.K. Sikri to monitor environmental safeguards in implementation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The High Powered Committee chairman (Ravi Chopra) recommended a carriageway width of 5.5 metres in ecologically sensitive stretches, citing the MoRTH circular of March 2018.
  2. In 2021, the Supreme Court permitted double-lane with paved shoulders (~10 m carriageway) for the project, accepting the Centre's strategic-border argument.
  3. The Supreme Court subsequently constituted an oversight committee headed by former Justice A.K. Sikri to monitor environmental safeguards in implementation.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q27. With reference to materials abandoned at Camp Century after its decommissioning in 1966–67, consider the following items: 1. The portable nuclear reactor vessel that powered the base 2. Approximately 200,000 litres of diesel fuel 3. Around 24 million litres of biological waste 4. Roughly 1.2 billion Becquerels of radioactive material Which of the above is/are NOT correctly identified as being left behind under the ice?

  1. The portable nuclear reactor vessel that powered the base
  2. Approximately 200,000 litres of diesel fuel
  3. Around 24 million litres of biological waste
  4. Roughly 1.2 billion Becquerels of radioactive material
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 4

Q28. The Aravalli Green Wall Project, launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, targets a 5 km buffer area around the Aravalli Hill Range covering how many districts across the four implementing States/UT?

  • A. 19 districts
  • B. 24 districts
  • C. 29 districts
  • D. 35 districts

Q29. Which one of the following was the first State in India to formally adopt the criterion of '100 metres above local relief' for regulating mining in the Aravalli region, a benchmark later proposed as the uniform national definition?

  • A. Haryana
  • B. Gujarat
  • C. Rajasthan
  • D. Delhi

Q30. The Supreme Court order of 29 December 2025 staying its earlier ruling on the Aravalli definition and directing constitution of a fresh multi-disciplinary expert committee was passed by a bench headed by which one of the following?

  • A. Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud
  • B. Chief Justice Sanjiv Khanna
  • C. Chief Justice B R Gavai
  • D. Chief Justice Surya Kant
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