Environment MCQs for UPSC Prelims — February 2026

Q1. With reference to the first cluster of CCU testbeds for the cement industry (2025), which of the following are correctly identified as knowledge partners (research institutions)?

  1. Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay
  2. Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur
  3. Indian Institute of Technology, Roorkee
  4. National Council for Cement and Building Materials
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 2 and 4
  • D. 3 only

Q2. Who chairs the High-Powered Committee constituted by the National Green Tribunal to re-examine the environmental clearance granted to the Great Nicobar Island Project — the committee whose report was submitted to the NGT in a sealed cover in October 2025?

  • A. Justice Prakash Shrivastava, Chairperson, National Green Tribunal
  • B. Leena Nandan, former Secretary, Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • C. Sunita Narain, Director General, Centre for Science and Environment
  • D. Ashok Lavasa, former Election Commissioner of India

Q3. With reference to the exemptions and permissible activities introduced by the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023 — relevant to Justice Deepak Gupta's critique at AAD 2026 of weakened ecological scrutiny — consider the following: 1. Forest land located within 100 km of international borders required for national security projects is exempt from prior Central Government approval. 2. Roadside amenities up to 0.10 hectare on public roads providing access to a habitation are exempt. 3. Government-owned zoos and eco-tourism facilities are listed as permissible non-forest activities. 4. Commercial extraction of timber by private parties on notified forest land is included as a permissible activity. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Forest land located within 100 km of international borders required for national security projects is exempt from prior Central Government approval.
  2. Roadside amenities up to 0.10 hectare on public roads providing access to a habitation are exempt.
  3. Government-owned zoos and eco-tourism facilities are listed as permissible non-forest activities.
  4. Commercial extraction of timber by private parties on notified forest land is included as a permissible activity.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 1 and 4 only

Q4. With reference to the High-Powered Committee constituted by the National Green Tribunal to re-examine the environmental clearance granted to the Great Nicobar Island Project — whose report was submitted to the NGT in a sealed cover in October 2025 — consider the following as members of the committee: 1. Chief Secretary, Andaman & Nicobar Administration 2. Botanical Survey of India 3. Director, Wildlife Institute of India 4. Central Pollution Control Board Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Chief Secretary, Andaman & Nicobar Administration
  2. Botanical Survey of India
  3. Director, Wildlife Institute of India
  4. Central Pollution Control Board
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q5. At the Anil Agarwal Dialogue 2026, former Supreme Court judge Justice Deepak Gupta criticised the National Green Tribunal's handling of the Great Nicobar Island project. Under which one of the following statutes was the National Green Tribunal established?

  • A. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  • B. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
  • C. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
  • D. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972

Q6. Craig, the elephant whose death in January 2026 reignited global debate on the conservation value of charismatic individual animals, was the flagship resident of which one of the following protected areas?

  • A. Tsavo East National Park, Kenya
  • B. Amboseli National Park, Kenya
  • C. Serengeti National Park, Tanzania
  • D. Kruger National Park, South Africa

Q7. The 2021 reclassification of African elephants into two distinct species — savanna and forest — for conservation status purposes was published under the authority of which one of the following bodies?

  • A. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
  • B. International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List
  • C. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  • D. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) Secretariat

Q8. According to the IUCN Red List assessment that reclassified African elephants in 2021, by approximately what percentage has the African savanna elephant (Loxodonta africana) population declined over the last 50 years?

  • A. At least 30%
  • B. At least 45%
  • C. At least 60%
  • D. At least 86%

Q9. In the context of African elephant conservation, the term 'super tusker' refers to which one of the following?

  • A. A bull elephant whose each tusk weighs approximately 45 kilograms or more
  • B. An adult elephant whose combined tusk length exceeds 3 metres
  • C. A matriarch leading a clan of more than 20 individuals across two ecosystems
  • D. A male elephant in musth whose tusks have not been trimmed by rangers

Q10. Which Ministry is the primary issuing authority of the Guidelines for Installation and Operation of Electric Vehicle Charging Infrastructure, 2024, whose non-implementation by States is the subject of the petition before the Supreme Court (2026)?

  • A. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
  • B. Ministry of Heavy Industries
  • C. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
  • D. Ministry of Power

Q11. Which one of the following has been designated as the Central Nodal Agency for implementation of the Guidelines for Installation and Operation of Electric Vehicle Charging Infrastructure, 2024?

  • A. Central Electricity Authority
  • B. NITI Aayog
  • C. Bureau of Energy Efficiency
  • D. Ministry of Heavy Industries

Q12. As per the Guidelines for Installation and Operation of Electric Vehicle Charging Infrastructure, 2024, what is the minimum percentage of common parking capacity that a group housing society must allocate for community EV chargers, in consultation with DISCOMs?

  • A. 5%
  • B. 10%
  • C. 15%
  • D. 20%

Q13. With reference to the Supreme Court's decision of February 2026 closing the suo motu case on remediation of polluted rivers, consider the following statements: 1. The suo motu cognisance had been taken by the Supreme Court on 13 January 2021. 2. The case originated from the Delhi Jal Board's plea against Haryana on Yamuna pollution. 3. The Bench closing the proceedings was headed by Chief Justice Surya Kant. 4. The Supreme Court transferred continued monitoring of the matter to the Central Pollution Control Board. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The suo motu cognisance had been taken by the Supreme Court on 13 January 2021.
  2. The case originated from the Delhi Jal Board's plea against Haryana on Yamuna pollution.
  3. The Bench closing the proceedings was headed by Chief Justice Surya Kant.
  4. The Supreme Court transferred continued monitoring of the matter to the Central Pollution Control Board.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 3 and 4
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 2 and 4

Q14. As per the information shared in Parliament in August 2025 by the Central Pollution Control Board, how many polluted river stretches have been identified in India under the National Water Quality Monitoring Programme?

  • A. 296 stretches on 271 rivers
  • B. 311 stretches on 279 rivers
  • C. 351 stretches on 323 rivers
  • D. 445 stretches on 351 rivers

Q15. Under CAQM's 2026 statutory direction, what is the revised maximum permissible particulate matter emission limit (in mg/Nm³) for the identified industries in Delhi-NCR?

  • A. 50
  • B. 80
  • C. 100
  • D. 30

Q16. As per CAQM's 2026 statutory direction, the 50 mg/Nm³ PM emission standard applies to industries operating in Delhi-NCR. Which of the following are correctly identified as covered categories?

  1. The 17 categories of highly polluting industries identified by the CPCB
  2. Red Category medium and large air-polluting industries
  3. Textile industries operating boilers or thermic fluid heaters
  4. Metal industries operating furnaces
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q17. The Great Nicobar project cleared by the NGT in 2026 is being executed by which one of the following as the implementing agency?

  • A. Andaman and Nicobar Islands Integrated Development Corporation Limited (ANIIDCO)
  • B. NITI Aayog
  • C. Sagarmala Development Company Limited
  • D. Indian Port Rail and Ropeway Corporation Limited

Q18. As part of the safeguards accepted for the Great Nicobar project, how many wildlife corridors are to be provided for the safe movement of animals?

  • A. 4
  • B. 6
  • C. 8
  • D. 12

Q19. Which of the following are correctly identified as components of the 'Holistic Development of Great Nicobar' project that the NGT addressed in its 2026 order?

  1. International Container Transshipment Terminal (deep-sea port)
  2. 450 MVA gas- and solar-based power plant
  3. Inland waterway freight corridor to the Indian mainland
  4. International (dual-use) airport
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q20. In the context of urban energy infrastructure, the term 'District Cooling System' (DCS) most accurately refers to:

  • A. A network of rooftop solar-powered air-conditioners installed building-wise across a city ward
  • B. A centralised plant that produces chilled water and distributes it through insulated underground pipes to multiple buildings, which consume cooling as a service
  • C. A municipal subsidy programme that supplies 5-star rated split ACs to low-income households at a uniform tariff
  • D. A passive cooling technique that exclusively uses earth-air tunnels and green roofs in a contiguous urban district

Q21. As per the UN Environment-led District Energy in Cities Initiative, how many Indian cities have been designated as pilot cities to demonstrate district cooling?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five

Q22. In which year was the India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP), the world's first such national plan, released by the Government of India?

  • A. 2017
  • B. 2018
  • C. 2019
  • D. 2022

Q23. According to the Finance Minister's statement at the Munich Security Conference (February 2026), by approximately how many years has India met two-thirds of its renewable energy Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) target ahead of schedule?

  • A. Two years
  • B. Three years
  • C. Four years
  • D. Six years

Q24. The principle of 'Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities' (CBDR-RC), repeatedly invoked by India in climate negotiations, is explicitly enshrined in which one of the following provisions?

  • A. Article 2 of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), 1992
  • B. Article 3 of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), 1992
  • C. Article 6 of the Kyoto Protocol, 1997
  • D. Article 9 of the Paris Agreement, 2015

Q25. With reference to the position articulated by India's Finance Minister at the 62nd Munich Security Conference (February 2026) as compared to India's earlier climate-finance posture, consider the following statements: 1. India's climate action spending, as a share of GDP, has risen from about 3.7% six years ago to about 5.6% currently. 2. India has claimed to have already met two-thirds of its renewable energy Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) target ahead of schedule. 3. India announced abandonment of the Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) principle in favour of uniform emission obligations for all parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. India's climate action spending, as a share of GDP, has risen from about 3.7% six years ago to about 5.6% currently.
  2. India has claimed to have already met two-thirds of its renewable energy Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) target ahead of schedule.
  3. India announced abandonment of the Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) principle in favour of uniform emission obligations for all parties.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q26. Which one of the following international instruments was the FIRST to formally articulate the 'Polluter Pays Principle' as an economic principle of environmental policy?

  • A. The 1972 OECD Council Recommendation on Guiding Principles concerning the International Economic Aspects of Environmental Policies
  • B. The 1972 Stockholm Declaration on the Human Environment
  • C. The 1992 Rio Declaration on Environment and Development (Principle 16)
  • D. The 1997 Kyoto Protocol to the UNFCCC

Q27. In the context of international environmental law, the 'Polluter Pays Principle' (PPP), recently invoked by India at the Munich Security Conference 2026, is best described as:

  • A. An obligation on all sovereign states to compensate the United Nations for any transboundary environmental damage caused within their territory
  • B. The principle that the party responsible for producing pollution should bear the cost of preventing and managing it, with environmental costs internalised by the polluter
  • C. A WTO-administered mechanism that automatically imposes a carbon border tax on exports from high-emitting countries
  • D. A binding rule under the Paris Agreement requiring developing countries to match the per-capita climate finance contributions of developed countries

Q28. In the United States, which one of the following federal agencies is the regulating body that issued the 2009 Endangerment Finding and was tasked with operationalising greenhouse gas standards for vehicles and power plants under the Clean Air Act?

  • A. Department of Energy (DOE)
  • B. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)
  • C. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
  • D. Department of the Interior (DOI)

Q29. Which one of the following U.S. Supreme Court rulings (2007) first directed the Environmental Protection Agency to determine whether greenhouse gases qualify as 'air pollutants' endangering public health under the Clean Air Act, thereby paving the way for the 2009 Endangerment Finding?

  • A. American Electric Power Co. v. Connecticut
  • B. West Virginia v. EPA
  • C. Utility Air Regulatory Group v. EPA
  • D. Massachusetts v. EPA

Q30. With reference to the 2009 EPA Endangerment Finding and its February 2026 rescission, consider the following statements: 1. The 2009 Endangerment Finding was issued under the Obama administration and identified six greenhouse gases as endangering public health and welfare. 2. The 2026 rescission formally amends the Clean Air Act to extinguish the EPA's authority to regulate greenhouse gases. 3. Unlike the 2009 finding, the 2026 rescission simultaneously eliminated greenhouse gas emission standards for automobiles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The 2009 Endangerment Finding was issued under the Obama administration and identified six greenhouse gases as endangering public health and welfare.
  2. The 2026 rescission formally amends the Clean Air Act to extinguish the EPA's authority to regulate greenhouse gases.
  3. Unlike the 2009 finding, the 2026 rescission simultaneously eliminated greenhouse gas emission standards for automobiles.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3
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