Environment MCQs for UPSC Prelims — March 2026

Q1. Consider the following pairings of CBD supplementary agreements with their attributes. Which of the above are correctly matched?

  1. Nagoya Protocol — Access and benefit-sharing of genetic resources
  2. Cartagena Protocol — Biosafety and living modified organisms
  3. Nagoya Protocol — Adopted in the year 2010
  4. Cartagena Protocol — Adopted in the year 2010
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Q2. The institutional architecture for access and benefit-sharing under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 operates at how many tiers?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five

Q3. The following countries are listed among the leading issuers of IRCCs after India on the ABS Clearing-House. Which one of the above is NOT correctly listed?

  1. France
  2. Spain
  3. Panama
  4. Brazil
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 3 and 4 only

Q4. According to the latest ABS Clearing-House data, which country ranks second after India in the number of IRCCs issued?

  • A. Spain
  • B. France
  • C. Argentina
  • D. Kenya

Q5. Under which provision of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 must foreigners, NRIs and foreign-controlled entities obtain prior approval of the National Biodiversity Authority before accessing India's biological resources?

  • A. Section 3
  • B. Section 7
  • C. Section 21
  • D. Section 41

Q6. Which one of the following best describes a Biodiversity Management Committee (BMC) under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002?

  • A. A local-level body constituted by every local body for conserving biodiversity and documenting it through the People's Biodiversity Register
  • B. A state-level statutory board that grants approvals to Indian entities for commercial use of bioresources
  • C. The central statutory authority that issues IRCCs and approves access by foreigners
  • D. An inter-ministerial committee that ratifies international biodiversity treaties on India's behalf

Q7. Of the 142 countries registered on the ABS Clearing-House, how many have actually issued IRCCs?

  • A. 34
  • B. 56
  • C. 64
  • D. 142

Q8. At which Conference of the Parties (COP) to the Convention on Biological Diversity was the Nagoya Protocol adopted?

  • A. COP-7 (Kuala Lumpur, 2004)
  • B. COP-10 (Nagoya, 2010)
  • C. COP-11 (Hyderabad, 2012)
  • D. COP-15 (Kunming-Montreal, 2022)

Q9. Which one of the following correctly describes the Nagoya Protocol?

  • A. A supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity governing access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their utilisation
  • B. A supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity regulating the transboundary movement of living modified organisms
  • C. A standalone international convention on climate finance independent of the Convention on Biological Diversity
  • D. A protocol to the World Trade Organization governing intellectual property rights over plant varieties

Q10. In the context of Bhavasagara's notification, the 'designating ministry' — the ministry that designated the centre as a national repository under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 — refers to which one of the following?

  • A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • B. Ministry of Earth Sciences
  • C. Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
  • D. Ministry of Science and Technology

Q11. With reference to the Convention on Biological Diversity and India's domestic framework, which of the following are correctly identified?

  1. The National Biodiversity Authority operates at the national level of the three-tier architecture.
  2. Biodiversity Management Committees function at the local level.
  3. India ratified the Convention on Biological Diversity in 1994.
  4. The Convention on Biological Diversity was adopted in the year 2002.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q12. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 — under which the Bhavasagara Centre was designated — was enacted primarily to give domestic effect to which one of the following international instruments?

  • A. Convention on Biological Diversity, 1992
  • B. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)
  • C. Ramsar Convention on Wetlands
  • D. Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)

Q13. Which one of the following collections, based at Agharkar Research Institute, Pune, was designated a national repository under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 in 2026?

  • A. MACS Collection of Microorganisms & National Fungal Culture Collection
  • B. Microbial Type Culture Collection (MTCC), Chandigarh
  • C. National Centre for Cell Science culture collection
  • D. National Centre for Microbial Resource

Q14. Following the 2026 notifications that added the Bhavasagara Centre and the Agharkar Research Institute collection, how many institutions in total now stand designated as national repositories under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002?

  • A. 18
  • B. 19
  • C. 20
  • D. 22

Q15. The two institutions added to the national repository network in 2026 were notified under Section 39 by the Central Government in consultation with which one of the following bodies?

  • A. National Biodiversity Authority
  • B. National Biodiversity Board
  • C. Wildlife Institute of India
  • D. Central Zoo Authority

Q16. Under Section 39 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, a designated 'repository' is best described as an institution which:

  • A. keeps in safe custody biological material, including voucher specimens, of designated categories of biological resources
  • B. grants access and benefit-sharing approvals to foreign entities seeking Indian genetic resources
  • C. prepares People's Biodiversity Registers documenting local biological resources at the village level
  • D. regulates the export of biological resources obtained for commercial utilisation

Q17. National repositories for categories of biological resources are designated under which one of the following provisions of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002?

  • A. Section 36
  • B. Section 39
  • C. Section 40
  • D. Section 41

Q18. The Centre for Marine Living Resources & Ecology (CMLRE), Kochi, functions as an attached office of which one of the following Union ministries?

  • A. Ministry of Earth Sciences
  • B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • C. Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
  • D. Ministry of Science and Technology

Q19. Consider the following claimed co-benefits of the indigenous bio-bitumen technology: 1. Reduction in stubble/crop-residue burning. 2. Additional income source for farmers and MSMEs. 3. Reduction in greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. 4. Elimination of India's entire crude-oil import bill. Which of the above is/are NOT correctly identified as a benefit?

  1. Reduction in stubble/crop-residue burning.
  2. Additional income source for farmers and MSMEs.
  3. Reduction in greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.
  4. Elimination of India's entire crude-oil import bill.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 3 and 4

Q20. Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026, into how many streams must waste be segregated at source for collection and channelisation by urban local bodies?

  • A. Four
  • B. Three
  • C. Five
  • D. Two

Q21. The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 supersede the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016. How many years separate these two sets of rules?

  • A. 10 years
  • B. 6 years
  • C. 16 years
  • D. 26 years

Q22. The circular-economy framework of the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 was notified by which Union Ministry?

  • A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  • B. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
  • C. Ministry of Jal Shakti
  • D. Ministry of Heavy Industries

Q23. The expanded scope of India's solid waste management rules, carried forward into the 2026 Rules, correctly extends application to which one of the following?

  • A. Special economic zones, airports and defence establishments
  • B. Only the areas of municipal corporations
  • C. Only metropolitan cities with population above one million
  • D. Agricultural farmland and reserved forest areas exclusively

Q24. Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026, what must a bulk waste generator obtain when on-site processing of its wet waste is not feasible?

  • A. An Extended Bulk Waste Generator Responsibility (EBWGR) certificate
  • B. An Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) certificate
  • C. A Refuse Derived Fuel (RDF) production licence
  • D. A Material Recovery Facility (MRF) authorisation

Q25. With reference to bulk waste generators (BWGs) and the Extended Bulk Waste Generator Responsibility regime, consider the following: 1. BWGs must process wet waste on-site as far as feasible. 2. Where on-site processing is not feasible, a BWG must obtain an EBWGR certificate. 3. Under the 2016 Rules, the built-up area threshold for a bulk generator was 5,000 square metres. 4. BWGs are permitted to mix wet and dry waste before handover. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. BWGs must process wet waste on-site as far as feasible.
  2. Where on-site processing is not feasible, a BWG must obtain an EBWGR certificate.
  3. Under the 2016 Rules, the built-up area threshold for a bulk generator was 5,000 square metres.
  4. BWGs are permitted to mix wet and dry waste before handover.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q26. With reference to the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026, consider the following statements: 1. They were notified in January 2026 and integrate the principle of Extended Producer Responsibility. 2. They come into effect from 1 April 2026, six years after the 2016 Rules. 3. Environmental compensation under the Rules is based on the Polluter Pays principle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. They were notified in January 2026 and integrate the principle of Extended Producer Responsibility.
  2. They come into effect from 1 April 2026, six years after the 2016 Rules.
  3. Environmental compensation under the Rules is based on the Polluter Pays principle.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q27. Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026, which body is empowered to frame the guidelines for implementation of the Rules?

  • A. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
  • B. State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs)
  • C. NITI Aayog
  • D. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

Q28. With reference to source segregation under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 and 2026, consider the following statements: 1. The 2016 Rules required waste generators to segregate waste into three streams. 2. Under the 2016 Rules, used diapers and sanitary napkins were classified as domestic hazardous waste. 3. The 2026 Rules retain the same three-stream segregation system as the 2016 Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The 2016 Rules required waste generators to segregate waste into three streams.
  2. Under the 2016 Rules, used diapers and sanitary napkins were classified as domestic hazardous waste.
  3. The 2026 Rules retain the same three-stream segregation system as the 2016 Rules.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q29. Under the four-stream source segregation mandated by the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026, used diapers and sanitary napkins are to be segregated under which stream?

  • A. Sanitary waste
  • B. Special care waste
  • C. Dry waste
  • D. Domestic hazardous waste

Q30. With reference to the regulatory lineage of India's solid waste management framework, consider the following: 1. Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000 — the first comprehensive national framework on the subject. 2. Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 — extended the regime's scope beyond municipal areas. 3. Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 — notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, superseding the 2016 Rules. 4. Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 — enacted as a standalone Act of Parliament. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000 — the first comprehensive national framework on the subject.
  2. Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 — extended the regime's scope beyond municipal areas.
  3. Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 — notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, superseding the 2016 Rules.
  4. Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 — enacted as a standalone Act of Parliament.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4