Governance MCQs for UPSC Prelims — March 2026

Q1. PMAY-G's 'Housing for All' objective is most directly aligned with which one of the numbered Sustainable Development Goals concerning sustainable cities and communities?

• A. SDG 1
• B. SDG 7
• C. SDG 11
• D. SDG 13

Q2. At the national level, what is the minimum percentage of the PMAY-G target that is earmarked for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?

• A. 50%
• B. 60%
• C. 75%
• D. 40%

Q3. In the context of PMAY-G targets, the figure of '2 crore houses' approved in 2024 most precisely denotes which one of the following?

• A. Additional houses to be built during FY 2024-25 to 2028-29 (Phase II)
• B. The cumulative housing target for both phases by March 2029
• C. Houses completed under Phase I as of March 2026
• D. Houses sanctioned but not yet grounded under Phase I

Q4. Which one of the following is the primary database used for identifying eligible beneficiaries under PMAY-G?

• A. Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011
• B. Population Census 2011
• C. National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5)
• D. BPL Census 2002

Q5. With effect from which date was the Indira Awaas Yojana restructured into the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana – Gramin (PMAY-G)?

• A. 1 April 2016
• B. 1 April 2015
• C. 25 June 2015
• D. 20 November 2016

Q6. PMAY-G was created by restructuring an earlier rural housing programme. Which one of the following was that immediate predecessor scheme?

• A. Indira Awaas Yojana
• B. Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme
• C. Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
• D. National Rural Livelihoods Mission

Q7. In the context of Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0's contribution to SDG-6 (clean water and sanitation), the digital initiative 'Sujalam Bharat' refers to which one of the following?

• A. A uniform national digital framework that assigns every village a unique Sujal Gaon (Service Area) ID for end-to-end mapping and real-time tracking of water supply from source to tap
• B. A national programme for interlinking of rivers to ensure rural water security
• C. A central scheme for desilting and rejuvenation of rural ponds and tanks
• D. An online platform for trading of water-use credits between Gram Panchayats

Q8. Consider the following statements comparing the Jal Jeevan Mission as originally launched (2019) with Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0: 1. Under the original JJM, the Centre-State fund-sharing ratio for North-Eastern and Himalayan States was 90:10. 2. Under JJM 2.0, the release of central funds has been made conditional on States signing a reform-linked MoU, unlike the earlier mechanism. 3. JJM 2.0 reduced the total central assistance below the original 2019 level of ₹2.08 lakh crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Under the original JJM, the Centre-State fund-sharing ratio for North-Eastern and Himalayan States was 90:10.
2. Under JJM 2.0, the release of central funds has been made conditional on States signing a reform-linked MoU, unlike the earlier mechanism.
3. JJM 2.0 reduced the total central assistance below the original 2019 level of ₹2.08 lakh crore.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. Under the Centre-State fund-sharing pattern of the Jal Jeevan Mission, which one of the following categories receives the highest (100%) central share?

• A. Union Territories without legislature
• B. North-Eastern and Himalayan States
• C. Union Territories with legislature
• D. All States other than the North-Eastern and Himalayan States

Q10. Which one of the following is the nodal Union Ministry for the Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0?

• A. Ministry of Jal Shakti
• B. Ministry of Rural Development
• C. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
• D. Ministry of Panchayati Raj

Q11. With reference to the institutional framework of the Jal Jeevan Mission, consider the following statements: 1. The National Jal Jeevan Mission functions under the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation. 2. A Gram Panchayat (or its sub-committee) certifies a village as 'Har Ghar Jal'. 3. The mission is implemented under the Ministry of Rural Development. 4. The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation is part of the Ministry of Jal Shakti. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. The National Jal Jeevan Mission functions under the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
2. A Gram Panchayat (or its sub-committee) certifies a village as 'Har Ghar Jal'.
3. The mission is implemented under the Ministry of Rural Development.
4. The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation is part of the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

• A. 3 only
• B. 1 and 3
• C. 2 and 4 only
• D. 3 and 4

Q12. The Jal Jeevan Mission, launched in 2019, is implemented through the National Jal Jeevan Mission housed in which one of the following Departments under the Ministry of Jal Shakti?

• A. Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation
• B. Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation
• C. Department of Land Resources
• D. Department of Rural Development

Q13. The term 'Functional Household Tap Connection' (FHTC), the core objective of the Jal Jeevan Mission, is most accurately defined as which one of the following?

• A. Provision to every rural household of a tap water connection delivering the prescribed quantity and quality of potable water on a regular and long-term basis
• B. Provision of at least one functional public standpost for every cluster of rural households
• C. Installation of a household tap connection regardless of whether water is actually supplied through it
• D. Provision of a hand-pump or borewell within 100 metres of every rural household

Q14. Consider the following States in the context of the first tranche of FY 2025-26 central assistance released under Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0: 1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Bihar 4. Odisha Which of the above is/are NOT correctly identified as a State that received this first tranche?

1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Bihar
4. Odisha

• A. 3 only
• B. 1 and 3
• C. 2 and 4 only
• D. 1, 2 and 4

Q15. With reference to the structural changes introduced under Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 approved by the Union Cabinet, consider the following: 1. Extension of the mission period up to December 2028. 2. Reorientation from an infrastructure-creation approach to a utility-based service-delivery model. 3. Reduction of the total outlay to align with fiscal consolidation. 4. Institution of the 'Sujalam Bharat' uniform national digital framework. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

1. Extension of the mission period up to December 2028.
2. Reorientation from an infrastructure-creation approach to a utility-based service-delivery model.
3. Reduction of the total outlay to align with fiscal consolidation.
4. Institution of the 'Sujalam Bharat' uniform national digital framework.

• A. 1, 2 and 4
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q16. Following the Union Cabinet's approval of Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0, the total outlay of the restructured mission was enhanced to which one of the following figures?

• A. ₹8.69 lakh crore
• B. ₹3.59 lakh crore
• C. ₹3.60 lakh crore
• D. ₹2.08 lakh crore

Q17. With reference to the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) and how it compares with the QS rankings, consider the following statements: 1. NIRF was launched by the Ministry of Education in 2015. 2. NIRF assigns a 30% weight each to 'Teaching, Learning & Resources' and 'Research & Professional Practice'. 3. Among NIRF's five parameters, 'Perception' carries the highest weight at 50%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. NIRF was launched by the Ministry of Education in 2015.
2. NIRF assigns a 30% weight each to 'Teaching, Learning & Resources' and 'Research & Professional Practice'.
3. Among NIRF's five parameters, 'Perception' carries the highest weight at 50%.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q18. Under NEP 2020, the Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education (including vocational education) is targeted to be raised to what level by 2035?

• A. 50%
• B. 26.3%
• C. 40%
• D. 60%

Q19. The target of raising India's Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education to 50% by 2035 is set under which one of the following?

• A. National Education Policy 2020
• B. National Policy on Education 1986 (as modified in 1992)
• C. Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009
• D. National Policy on Education 1968

Q20. Which one of the following is the nodal authority in the Government of India for higher-education policy whose Department flagged India's performance in the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2026?

• A. Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education
• B. Department of Science & Technology, Ministry of Science & Technology
• C. University Grants Commission, an autonomous statutory body
• D. All India Council for Technical Education

Q21. Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), the builder of the SVL ships, is a Public Sector Undertaking under which Ministry?

• A. Ministry of Defence
• B. Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
• C. Ministry of Heavy Industries
• D. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Q22. The draft Second Amendment Rules, 2026 proposed by MeitY in March 2026 seek to amend which one of the following as the principal parent set of subordinate legislation?

• A. IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021
• B. IT (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules, 2011
• C. IT (Procedure and Safeguards for Blocking for Access of Information by Public) Rules, 2009
• D. IT (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules, 2011

Q23. The Central Government's power to frame and amend the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, including the 2026 amendments, is derived chiefly from which one of the following provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

• A. Section 87 (power of the Central Government to make rules)
• B. Section 79 (exemption from liability of intermediaries)
• C. Section 69A (power to issue directions for blocking public access)
• D. Section 66A (punishment for sending offensive messages)

Q24. Under the draft IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Second Amendment Rules, 2026, which Union ministry would be empowered to issue takedown notices to individual social media users in respect of "news and current affairs" content?

• A. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
• B. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
• C. Ministry of Home Affairs
• D. Ministry of Law and Justice

Q25. With reference to the First Amendment Rules, 2026 and the draft Second Amendment Rules, 2026 to the IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, consider the following statements: 1. The First Amendment Rules, 2026 dealt principally with synthetically generated information (SGI) and AI-content labelling, while the draft Second Amendment seeks to extend the framework to individual users posting news and current affairs content. 2. Both amendments were issued by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). 3. Unlike the First Amendment, the draft Second Amendment proposes that oversight of users' news and current affairs content would fall within the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting's domain. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The First Amendment Rules, 2026 dealt principally with synthetically generated information (SGI) and AI-content labelling, while the draft Second Amendment seeks to extend the framework to individual users posting news and current affairs content.
2. Both amendments were issued by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
3. Unlike the First Amendment, the draft Second Amendment proposes that oversight of users' news and current affairs content would fall within the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting's domain.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q26. In the context of the draft IT (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Second Amendment Rules, 2026, the term "safe harbour" under Section 79 of the IT Act, 2000 most precisely refers to which one of the following?

• A. The statutory exemption of an intermediary from liability for third-party information it hosts or transmits, conditional on its observing due diligence and not initiating or modifying that content
• B. The blanket immunity of an intermediary from all civil and criminal proceedings irrespective of its conduct or knowledge of the content
• C. The protection given to an individual user from prosecution for content posted by others on a shared platform
• D. The exemption of digital news publishers from the Digital Media Ethics Code so long as they register with the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

Q27. Under the Karnataka Eva Nammava Bill, 2026, what is the minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for an 'honour' killing?

• A. Three years
• B. Five years
• C. Seven years
• D. Ten years

Q28. In the Karnataka Eva Nammava Bill, 2026, the act of performing 'thithi' is criminalised as an honour crime. In this context, 'thithi' refers to which one of the following?

• A. The performance of death/funeral rituals for a living couple so as to symbolically declare them dead to their family or community
• B. A ceremonial social boycott formally proclaimed by a caste assembly against an inter-caste couple
• C. A monetary penalty imposed by a community council on the family of a couple marrying outside their caste
• D. A forced ritual reconciliation ceremony compelling a couple to dissolve their marriage

Q29. Under the procedure reaffirmed in the Harish Rana case, which body is primarily responsible for certifying that a patient's condition is irreversible before passive euthanasia may proceed?

• A. A primary medical board of senior doctors constituted by the treating hospital
• B. The National Human Rights Commission
• C. The National Medical Commission
• D. The district health office of the State government

Q30. In the context of Indian law as reaffirmed in the 2026 Harish Rana case, 'passive euthanasia' is most precisely defined as which one of the following?

• A. The withdrawal or withholding of life-sustaining medical treatment from a patient
• B. The deliberate administration of a lethal substance to end a patient's life
• C. A physician supplying the means for a patient to end his or her own life
• D. The denial of palliative care to a terminally ill patient