Governance MCQs for UPSC Prelims — May 2026

Q1. Under the World Anti-Doping Code as applied by NADA India, what does a Therapeutic Use Exemption (TUE) granted to an athlete authorise?

• A. Use of a substance or method on the WADA Prohibited List strictly to treat a documented legitimate medical condition
• B. A blanket exemption from all out-of-competition testing for the duration of an injury rehabilitation
• C. A permanent waiver of the athlete's whereabouts filing obligations once it is granted
• D. Complete immunity from any anti-doping rule violation while the prescribed medication is in use

Q2. With reference to the National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Act, 2025, which of the following is/are NOT a feature introduced by the amendment?

1. The Director General and other members of NADA are granted operational independence from sports federations, Olympic committees and government departments.
2. Accreditation of testing laboratories by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) is made mandatory.
3. Direct appeals to the Court of Arbitration for Sport are permitted in international-level cases.
4. Athletes who fail a dope test are made criminally liable with imprisonment up to five years.

• A. 1 and 3 only
• B. 2 only
• C. 4 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q3. The National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill, 2025, which inter alia provides operational independence to the Director General of the National Anti-Doping Agency, was piloted in Parliament by which one of the following Union Ministries?

• A. Ministry of Home Affairs
• B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
• C. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
• D. Ministry of Law and Justice

Q4. In the context of India's anti-doping framework, the term 'Athlete Biological Passport (ABP)', for which NDTL has been approved by WADA as a management unit, refers to:

• A. A WADA-issued certificate declaring an athlete drug-free and valid for participation in international competitions
• B. An individual electronic record that monitors selected biological markers of an athlete over time to reveal the effects of doping indirectly rather than detecting the prohibited substance itself
• C. A travel-document waiver permitting elite athletes to carry therapeutic-use exempted medicines across international borders
• D. A central registry maintained by NADA listing athletes who have served suspensions for Anti-Doping Rule Violations

Q5. With reference to the National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL), which of the following is/are NOT among its mandated functions?

1. Conducting dope testing of urine and blood samples collected from athletes
2. Operating as a WADA-approved Athlete Passport Management Unit (APMU) for managing Athlete Biological Passports
3. Adjudicating Anti-Doping Rule Violations and imposing sanctions on athletes found guilty of doping
4. Registering and licensing pharmaceutical manufacturers that produce substances on the WADA Prohibited List

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 3 and 4 only
• D. 1, 3 and 4

Q6. In the context of the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA), the term 'Registered Testing Pool (RTP)' refers to which one of the following?

• A. A list of accredited laboratories authorised to conduct dope sample analysis in India
• B. A roster of high-priority elite athletes who must furnish whereabouts information and are subject to in- and out-of-competition testing
• C. A national database of substances and methods prohibited under the WADA Code
• D. A panel of arbitrators empanelled to hear anti-doping rule violation appeals

Q7. Which one of the following Union Ministries is the administrative parent ministry of the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) of India?

• A. Ministry of Home Affairs
• B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
• C. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
• D. Ministry of Education

Q8. With reference to the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022, which of the following statements correctly describe the provisions of the Act?

1. The National Board for Anti-Doping in Sports oversees the activities of NADA and makes recommendations to the central government on anti-doping regulations.
2. The National Board for Anti-Doping in Sports is chaired ex officio by the Union Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports.
3. The Act empowers the central government to establish additional National Dope Testing Laboratories besides the existing NDTL.
4. The scope of the Act extends to athletes as well as athlete support personnel.

• A. 1, 3 and 4
• B. 1, 2 and 4
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1 and 4 only

Q9. With reference to the changes brought about by the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 as compared to the position prevailing before its enactment, consider the following statements:

1. Prior to the 2022 Act, the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) functioned as a society set up in 2009 and not as a statutory body.
2. The 2022 Act conferred statutory status on the National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL), which earlier operated as a non-statutory testing facility.
3. With the enactment of the 2022 Act, India became the first country in Asia to enact a dedicated statutory anti-doping law.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q10. Which one of the following is the nodal Union Ministry that has placed the 2026 draft amendments to the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 in the public domain for stakeholder consultation?

• A. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
• B. Ministry of Home Affairs
• C. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
• D. Ministry of Law and Justice

Q11. With reference to India's anti-doping legal framework, consider the following statements:

1. While the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 created a statutory regulatory regime for the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA), the 2026 draft amendments placed for public consultation propose, for the first time, criminal penalties for trafficking and administration of prohibited substances.
2. Unlike the 2022 Act, the 2026 draft amendments propose to subject athletes who fail doping tests to direct criminal prosecution in lieu of the existing anti-doping rule violation (ADRV) framework.
3. The National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill, 2025 was passed by Parliament before the draft criminalisation amendments of 2026 were placed in the public domain for stakeholder consultation.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q12. With reference to the e-Shram portal, consider the following statements:

1. It is administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India.
2. Unorganised workers aged 16 to 59 years are eligible to register on it.
3. Members of the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) and Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) are eligible to register on it.
4. An Aadhaar-linked mobile number is required for self-registration on the portal.

• A. 1, 2 and 4 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4 only
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q13. In how many high-focus, tribal-dominated States is the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission (launched in 2023) being implemented?

• A. 10 States
• B. 14 States
• C. 17 States
• D. 21 States

Q14. With reference to the National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021, which of the following statements is/are NOT correctly described? 1. Group 1 covers disorders amenable to one-time curative treatment. 2. For Group 2 diseases, financial support is envisaged to be provided by the State Governments. 3. The policy is formulated and implemented by the Department of Biotechnology under the Ministry of Science and Technology. 4. Financial assistance for treatment at a Centre of Excellence was enhanced to Rs. 50 lakh in 2022.

1. Group 1 covers disorders amenable to one-time curative treatment.
2. For Group 2 diseases, financial support is envisaged to be provided by the State Governments.
3. The policy is formulated and implemented by the Department of Biotechnology under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
4. Financial assistance for treatment at a Centre of Excellence was enhanced to Rs. 50 lakh in 2022.

• A. 1 and 2
• B. 2 and 4
• C. 3 only
• D. 1, 3 and 4

Q15. The National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021, which designates Centres of Excellence and provides financial assistance up to Rs. 50 lakh for treatment, is formulated and implemented solely by which one of the following Ministries/Departments of the Government of India?

• A. Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology
• B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
• C. Department of Health Research, Indian Council of Medical Research
• D. Ministry of AYUSH

Q16. The UMMID initiative, under which NIDAN Kendras have been established in government hospitals to provide genetic diagnostics, prenatal testing and counselling for inherited disorders, is implemented by which one of the following?

• A. Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
• B. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
• C. Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology
• D. National Health Authority under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Q17. With reference to the services offered at NIDAN (National Inherited Diseases Administration) Kendras under the UMMID initiative, which of the following is/are NOT among the activities undertaken at these Kendras?

1. Prenatal testing and diagnosis for genetic disorders
2. Newborn screening for treatable inherited metabolic disorders
3. Manufacturing and free distribution of orphan drugs for rare diseases
4. Training of clinicians in human and medical genetics

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 3 only
• C. 3 and 4 only
• D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Q18. The IndiaAI Mission, which operationalises the national vision articulated in the #AIForAll strategy, is implemented as an Independent Business Division under which one of the following bodies?

• A. NITI Aayog
• B. Digital India Corporation, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
• C. Department of Science and Technology, Ministry of Science and Technology
• D. Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India

Q19. Which one of the following is the nodal implementing agency of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)?

• A. National Health Authority
• B. Indian Council of Medical Research
• C. National Medical Commission
• D. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation

Q20. In the context of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, what does the abbreviation 'ABHA' stand for?

• A. Ayushman Bharat Health Account
• B. Ayushman Bharat Hospital Authority
• C. Ayushman Bharat Healthcare Alliance
• D. Ayushman Bharat Health Assurance

Q21. With reference to the functions of a School Management Committee (SMC) under the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 as compared with the SMC Guidelines, 2026, consider the following statements: 1. While the RTE Act, 2009 requires the SMC to prepare a School Development Plan, the SMC Guidelines, 2026 specify it as a three-year plan with three annual sub-plans. 2. The requirement that at least fifty per cent of the members of the SMC shall be women, prescribed under the RTE framework, has been retained under the SMC Guidelines, 2026. 3. Unlike the RTE Act, 2009, the SMC Guidelines, 2026 for the first time empower the SMC to monitor the utilisation of grants received from the appropriate Government or local authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. While the RTE Act, 2009 requires the SMC to prepare a School Development Plan, the SMC Guidelines, 2026 specify it as a three-year plan with three annual sub-plans.
2. The requirement that at least fifty per cent of the members of the SMC shall be women, prescribed under the RTE framework, has been retained under the SMC Guidelines, 2026.
3. Unlike the RTE Act, 2009, the SMC Guidelines, 2026 for the first time empower the SMC to monitor the utilisation of grants received from the appropriate Government or local authority.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q22. As per the School Management Committee (SMC) Guidelines, 2026 issued by the Ministry of Education, the School Development Plan to be prepared by the SMC covers a period of how many years?

• A. One year
• B. Two years
• C. Three years
• D. Five years

Q23. The Samagra Shiksha Scheme, which serves as the funding vehicle for capacity building and training of School Management Committees in India, is implemented by which one of the following?

• A. Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education
• B. Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education
• C. Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
• D. NITI Aayog, in partnership with State Education Departments

Q24. With reference to the Samagra Shiksha Scheme of the Government of India and the schemes it replaced, consider the following statements:

1. It subsumes the erstwhile Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan and Teacher Education schemes into a single Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
2. Unlike the predecessor schemes which addressed elementary and secondary stages separately, Samagra Shiksha treats school education as a continuum from pre-school to Class XII.
3. The composite school grant per school under Samagra Shiksha was revised downward from the earlier Rs 25,000 - Rs 1 lakh slab to Rs 14,500 - Rs 50,000.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q25. Under the National Education Policy, 2020, which one of the following is envisaged as the basic unit of governance for sharing of resources and effective oversight by local stakeholders in school education?

• A. The School Complex/Cluster
• B. The Block Resource Centre
• C. The Cluster Resource Centre
• D. The School Management Committee

Q26. With reference to the architecture of community participation in school education in India, consider the following statements:

1. Section 21 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 mandates the constitution of School Management Committees in government, aided and specified-category schools, requiring at least 75 per cent of members to be parents/guardians and at least 50 per cent to be women.
2. The National Education Policy, 2020 recommends grouping of schools into 'School Complexes', each comprising one higher-secondary school along with other schools and Anganwadis within a 5-10 km radius, to serve as the basic unit of governance.
3. The School Management Committee Guidelines, 2026 reposition SMCs from advisory/monitoring bodies under the RTE Act into 'school community governing institutions' to operationalise the NEP 2020 vision.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q27. With reference to the applicability of School Management Committees (SMCs) under the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 and the SMC Guidelines, 2026, consider the following statements: 1. Under Section 21 of the RTE Act, 2009, the requirement to constitute a School Management Committee extends only to wholly Government-run schools, whereas the SMC Guidelines, 2026 extend this requirement for the first time to Government-aided schools. 2. The SMC Guidelines, 2026 exempt schools falling under Section 2(n)(iv) of the RTE Act, 2009 from mandatory compliance, provided such schools receive no aid or grants from the appropriate Government or local authority. 3. The Ministry of Education has encouraged schools exempt from the SMC Guidelines, 2026, including unaided minority schools, to voluntarily constitute School Management Committees to promote transparency and participatory governance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Under Section 21 of the RTE Act, 2009, the requirement to constitute a School Management Committee extends only to wholly Government-run schools, whereas the SMC Guidelines, 2026 extend this requirement for the first time to Government-aided schools.
2. The SMC Guidelines, 2026 exempt schools falling under Section 2(n)(iv) of the RTE Act, 2009 from mandatory compliance, provided such schools receive no aid or grants from the appropriate Government or local authority.
3. The Ministry of Education has encouraged schools exempt from the SMC Guidelines, 2026, including unaided minority schools, to voluntarily constitute School Management Committees to promote transparency and participatory governance.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q28. Which one of the following is the statutory body established by an Act of Parliament specifically to safeguard the rights of notified religious minorities under Article 30(1) of the Constitution to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice?

• A. National Commission for Minorities
• B. National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions
• C. National Council for Educational Research and Training
• D. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights

Q29. In the Ministry of Education's clarification of May 2026 on the SMC Guidelines, 2026, the exemption granted to certain unaided schools (including unaided minority schools) from the mandatory applicability of the Guidelines is anchored in which provision of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009?

• A. Section 12(1)(c)
• B. Section 21
• C. Section 2(n)(iv)
• D. Section 18

Q30. The School Management Committee (SMC) Guidelines, 2026 and the subsequent clarification (May 2026) regarding their applicability over differently managed schools were issued by which one of the following?

• A. Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education
• B. Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education
• C. National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
• D. Ministry of Women and Child Development