Governance MCQs for UPSC Prelims — May 2026
Q1. Consider the following statements comparing PM SVANidhi with the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY):
1. Unlike PM SVANidhi, which is a Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs scheme, PMMY is administered under the Ministry of Finance.
2. Both PM SVANidhi and PMMY extend collateral-free loans.
3. PM SVANidhi offers a larger maximum loan amount than PMMY.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Unlike PM SVANidhi, which is a Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs scheme, PMMY is administered under the Ministry of Finance.
- Both PM SVANidhi and PMMY extend collateral-free loans.
- PM SVANidhi offers a larger maximum loan amount than PMMY.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q2. Under the restructured PM SVANidhi, which department shares implementation responsibility with MoHUA and is specifically tasked with facilitating access to loans and credit cards through banks and financial institutions?
- A. Department of Financial Services
- B. Department of Economic Affairs
- C. Department of Expenditure
- D. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
Q3. PM SVANidhi, whose six-year progress was reviewed in 2026, is the flagship street-vendor scheme of which single Union Ministry?
- A. Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs
- B. Ministry of Finance
- C. Ministry of Rural Development
- D. Ministry of Labour & Employment
Q4. In the six-year review of PM SVANidhi, the figure of 'nearly 95%' cited refers to the share of beneficiaries who:
- A. Accessed formal institutional credit for the first time
- B. Are women vendors
- C. Belong to marginalised communities
- D. Have completed repayment of all three tranches
Q5. In the context of PM SVANidhi loans, the term 'collateral-free' precisely means that the loans are:
- A. Advanced without requiring any security, guarantor or asset as collateral
- B. Advanced entirely free of interest to the vendor
- C. Fully waived off after a fixed vending period
- D. Sanctioned only against pledge of the vendor's business premises
Q6. With reference to the December 2024 restructuring of PM SVANidhi approved by the Union Cabinet, consider the following:
1. A total outlay of ₹7,332 crore.
2. Extension of the lending period up to 31 March 2030.
3. A target of 1.15 crore beneficiaries including 50 lakh new beneficiaries.
4. Transfer of sole nodal responsibility for the scheme to NITI Aayog.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- A total outlay of ₹7,332 crore.
- Extension of the lending period up to 31 March 2030.
- A target of 1.15 crore beneficiaries including 50 lakh new beneficiaries.
- Transfer of sole nodal responsibility for the scheme to NITI Aayog.
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3
- C. 2 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q7. Which one of the following is the credit instrument newly introduced under the restructured PM SVANidhi, provided exclusively to beneficiaries who have timely repaid their second loan?
- A. UPI-linked RuPay Credit Card
- B. Kisan Credit Card
- C. BHIM-Aadhaar debit card
- D. PMJDY RuPay debit card
Q8. Under PM SVANidhi, the digital cashback incentive of up to ₹1,200 per year is provided to a beneficiary for which one of the following?
- A. Undertaking eligible digital/UPI transactions
- B. Timely repayment of the loan instalments
- C. Enrolling family members in social-security schemes
- D. Registering the vending unit on an e-commerce portal
Q9. Under the original PM SVANidhi design, what is the maximum amount of the largest (third) working-capital loan tranche?
- A. ₹20,000
- B. ₹50,000
- C. ₹75,000
- D. ₹1,00,000
Q10. With reference to the original loan tranche structure of PM SVANidhi, consider the following:
1. A first tranche of up to ₹10,000.
2. A second tranche of up to ₹20,000.
3. A third tranche of up to ₹50,000.
4. A fourth tranche of up to ₹75,000.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- A first tranche of up to ₹10,000.
- A second tranche of up to ₹20,000.
- A third tranche of up to ₹50,000.
- A fourth tranche of up to ₹75,000.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 3 only
- C. 2 and 4 only
- D. 4 only
Q11. As highlighted in official communications in 2026, PM SVANidhi completed how many years since its launch?
- A. Five years
- B. Six years
- C. Seven years
- D. Ten years
Q12. With reference to the PM SVANidhi scheme, consider the following statements about its original design and mandate:
1. It was launched by the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs.
2. It provides collateral-free micro-credit to urban street vendors.
3. It was launched in June 2020 in the aftermath of the COVID-19 pandemic.
4. Its primary target group is rural landless agricultural labourers.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- It was launched by the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs.
- It provides collateral-free micro-credit to urban street vendors.
- It was launched in June 2020 in the aftermath of the COVID-19 pandemic.
- Its primary target group is rural landless agricultural labourers.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3
- C. 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q13. SIR Phase-II (ordered on 27 October 2025), spread across 9 States and 3 UTs, covered approximately how many Assembly Constituencies?
- A. 1,843
- B. 321
- C. 543
- D. 4,123
Q14. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, the Selection Committee that recommends appointments to the President consists of which of the following?
- A. The Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of the Opposition (or leader of the largest opposition party) in the Lok Sabha
- B. The Prime Minister, the Chief Justice of India, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
- C. The President, the Prime Minister, and the Chief Justice of India
- D. The Prime Minister, the Union Law Minister, and the Chief Justice of India
Q15. Before the 2025 exercise, the last Intensive Revision of electoral rolls in Bihar had been carried out in which year?
- A. 2003
- B. 2004
- C. 1993
- D. 2008
Q16. In the Bihar Special Intensive Revision, 2025, the 'qualifying date' (fixed as 1 July 2025) refers to which one of the following?
- A. The reference date with respect to which a person's age and eligibility to be enrolled as an elector are determined
- B. The date on which the draft electoral roll is published
- C. The last date for filing claims and objections against the roll
- D. The date on which the previous intensive revision was completed
Q17. With regard to the different revisions of electoral rolls in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
- A. Both the Special Summary Revision and the Special Intensive Revision are carried out by the Election Commission of India under powers traceable to Article 324
- B. Only the Special Intensive Revision, and never the Special Summary Revision, is conducted under any statutory authority
- C. The Special Summary Revision alone is conducted by the ECI, while the SIR is conducted by the State Election Commissions
- D. The Special Intensive Revision is conducted exclusively by the District Magistrate without any ECI involvement
Q18. Among the modes of revising electoral rolls used by the ECI, which one involves the most exhaustive, ground-up house-to-house re-verification of every elector?
- A. Special Intensive Revision
- B. Special Summary Revision
- C. Special Revision
- D. Continuous updation of the roll
Q19. In SIR Phase-III, the cut-off of 28 June 2026 denotes the date by which which of the following must take place?
- A. Enumeration Forms must be received by the ERO for inclusion in the Draft Electoral Rolls
- B. The final electoral roll must be published
- C. Claims and objections against the draft roll must be filed
- D. Booth Level Officers must complete all house-to-house visits
Q20. Under the ECI order of 14 May 2026, the Enumeration Phase of SIR Phase-III commenced on 30 May 2026 in which of the following groups of States?
- A. Odisha, Mizoram, Sikkim and Manipur
- B. Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat and Kerala
- C. Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Rajasthan
- D. Assam, Nagaland, Tripura and Meghalaya
Q21. In its 2026 judgment on the SIR, the Supreme Court clarified that the Election Commission's power of inquiry into an elector can be exercised only for which limited purpose?
- A. To decide whether a person's name should be included in or excluded from the electoral roll
- B. To conclusively determine a person's citizenship status for all legal purposes
- C. To assess a person's eligibility for government welfare schemes
- D. To determine a person's liability under the Citizenship Act, 1955
Q22. The 2026 Supreme Court judgment upholding the Election Commission's power to conduct the Special Intensive Revision was delivered by a Bench led by which Chief Justice of India?
- A. Surya Kant
- B. Sanjiv Khanna
- C. B. R. Gavai
- D. D. Y. Chandrachud
Q23. Under Section 24 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, how many successive levels of appeal are available against an order of the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) during revision of electoral rolls?
- A. One
- B. Two
- C. Three
- D. Four
Q24. The Election Commission of India orders a Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in exercise of its powers under which of the following?
- A. Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
- B. Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
- C. Article 326 of the Constitution and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
- D. Article 243K of the Constitution and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
Q25. The 2026 roadshow held in New Delhi to attract investors and technology providers for Surface Coal/Lignite Gasification Projects under the Rs 37,500 crore scheme was organised by which Ministry?
- A. Ministry of Coal
- B. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
- C. Ministry of Power
- D. Ministry of Heavy Industries
Q26. The September 2025 workshop that evaluated coal gasification technologies specifically suited to India's high-ash coal — as distinct from technologies designed for low-ash imported coal — was organised by which one of the following bodies?
- A. NITI Aayog
- B. Ministry of Coal
- C. Central Institute of Mining and Fuel Research (CIMFR)
- D. Bureau of Energy Efficiency
Q27. The projection that domestic coal gasification could substitute imports worth up to about Rs 3 lakh crore is attributed to the Union Minister holding which portfolio?
- A. Coal and Mines
- B. Petroleum and Natural Gas
- C. Chemicals and Fertilizers
- D. Heavy Industries
Q28. The stipulation that coal-based thermal power plants located beyond 500 km from the pit-head must be supplied coal with ash content not exceeding 34% (on a quarterly average) is a requirement laid down by which one of the following?
- A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B. Ministry of Coal
- C. Ministry of Power
- D. Central Pollution Control Board only
Q29. The India Meteorological Department, the nodal agency for heatwave monitoring, forecasting and warnings, functions under which one of the following Ministries?
- A. Ministry of Earth Sciences
- B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- C. Ministry of Science and Technology
- D. Ministry of Home Affairs
Q30. The restructuring and extension of PM SVANidhi's lending period was approved by which authority, and with what total outlay?
- A. The Union Cabinet, with a total outlay of ₹7,332 crore
- B. The Union Cabinet, with a total outlay of ₹600 crore
- C. MoHUA, through an executive order, with a total outlay of ₹7,332 crore
- D. NITI Aayog, with a total outlay of ₹5,000 crore