Governance MCQs for UPSC Prelims — June 2026

Q1. As of June 2026, reflecting the mass-scale rollout aimed at lifelong learning and equitable access, approximately how many APAAR IDs had been generated nationwide?

• A. 13.74 crore
• B. 23.74 crore
• C. 33.74 crore
• D. 43.74 crore

Q2. Within the Academic Bank of Credits governed by the UGC, deposited academic credits remain valid for a maximum of how many years, unless a longer duration is prescribed by the relevant discipline?

• A. 5 years
• B. 7 years
• C. 10 years
• D. 3 years

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding consent and data linkage in the ABC/APAAR ecosystem. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. For minor students, generating an APAAR ID requires verifiable parental consent under the DPDP Act, 2023.
2. Document sharing through the Academic Bank of Credits is consent-based.
3. The APAAR ID can be generated without any linkage to Aadhaar.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Which one of the following bodies mandated all Higher Education Institutions to upload student credit data on the Academic Bank of Credits portal by 30 June 2026?

• A. All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
• B. University Grants Commission (UGC)
• C. National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET)
• D. National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

Q5. The National Credit Framework (NCrF) seamlessly integrates several qualification frameworks. Which one of the following is NOT correctly identified as a framework encompassed by the NCrF?

1. National Higher Education Qualifications Framework (NHEQF)
2. National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF)
3. National School Education Qualifications Framework (NSEQF)
4. National Digital Education Qualifications Framework (NDEQF)

• A. 1 only
• B. 2 and 3
• C. 4 only
• D. 3 and 4

Q6. Consider the following statements about the National Credit Framework (NCrF) as compared with stream-specific qualification frameworks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The NCrF integrates credits earned through school, higher and vocational education, unlike frameworks confined to a single stream.
2. Under the NCrF, one credit is equal to 30 notional learning hours.
3. The NCrF assigns credits differently depending on whether the learning is academic or vocational.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the Multiple Entry and Exit (MEE) framework in Indian higher education. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. More universities currently offer multiple entry than offer multiple exit.
2. A student exiting after one year of an undergraduate programme receives a Certificate, while exiting after two years gives a Diploma.
3. The MEE framework applies only to undergraduate students and not to postgraduate students.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q8. Under the Multiple Entry and Exit (MEE) framework tracked via the ABC, certain awards are granted at defined exit points. Which one of the following is NOT correctly identified as such an exit award?

1. Certificate on exit after completing 1 year
2. Diploma on exit after completing 2 years
3. Bachelor's degree on completing 3 or 4 years
4. Doctoral degree on exit after completing 5 years

• A. 4 only
• B. 1 only
• C. 3 only
• D. 2 and 4

Q9. The APAAR ID consolidates a learner's records across several domains. Which one of the following is NOT correctly identified as a category of records consolidated under APAAR?

1. School education records
2. Higher education records
3. Skill development records
4. Income-tax payment records

• A. 1 only
• B. 4 only
• C. 3 and 4
• D. 1 and 4

Q10. With reference to the APAAR (Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry) ID, consider the following descriptions. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

1. It is a unique 12-digit student ID.
2. It is accessible through DigiLocker.
3. It consolidates a learner's records across school education, higher education and skill development.
4. It is issued only to higher education students enrolled in universities.

• A. 1, 2 and 3
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 3 and 4

Q11. Consider the following statements that contrast the Academic Bank of Credits (ABC) with degree-awarding institutions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The ABC stores and transfers credits but does not itself award degrees, which remains the function of recognised institutions.
2. Credits deposited in the ABC remain valid indefinitely, unlike the fixed validity of a single academic year.
3. The ABC is regulated by the University Grants Commission under the Ministry of Education.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q12. With reference to the Academic Bank of Credits (ABC), consider the following activities. Which of the above is/are correctly identified as core functions performed by the ABC?

1. Storing academic credits earned by students
2. Transferring academic credits between recognised institutions
3. Awarding degrees directly to students
4. Redeeming accumulated academic credits

• A. 1, 2 and 4
• B. 1, 3 and 4
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q13. Although the Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) and the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) administer different benefits, both function exclusively under which single Union Ministry?

• A. Ministry of Labour & Employment
• B. Ministry of Finance
• C. Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
• D. Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment

Q14. The package of benefits available to insured persons under the ESI scheme — sickness, maternity, disablement, dependants' and medical benefit — is enumerated under which provision of the Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948?

• A. Section 46
• B. Section 2(9)
• C. Section 39
• D. Section 56

Q15. To be eligible for relief under the ABVKY, an insured person must have contributed for not less than how many days in each of the three consecutive contribution periods immediately preceding the claim?

• A. 50 days
• B. 70 days
• C. 78 days
• D. 91 days

Q16. With reference to the Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana (ABVKY), consider the following: 1. It provides relief to insured persons covered under Section 2(9) of the ESI Act who become unemployed. 2. The relief is payable at the rate of 50% of the average daily earnings of the claimant. 3. A claimant must have been in insurable employment for a minimum of two years to be eligible. 4. The relief may be claimed any number of times so long as the person remains in insurable employment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. It provides relief to insured persons covered under Section 2(9) of the ESI Act who become unemployed.
2. The relief is payable at the rate of 50% of the average daily earnings of the claimant.
3. A claimant must have been in insurable employment for a minimum of two years to be eligible.
4. The relief may be claimed any number of times so long as the person remains in insurable employment.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 4 only
• C. 1, 2 and 3
• D. 3 only

Q17. With reference to the contribution structure under the ESI scheme, consider the following statements: 1. The total contribution of 4% of wages comprises an employer share of 0.75% and an employee share of 3.25%. 2. The total contribution rate was reduced from 6.5% to 4% with effect from 1 July 2019. 3. The wage ceiling for coverage is ₹21,000 per month for general employees and ₹25,000 per month for Persons with Disability. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The total contribution of 4% of wages comprises an employer share of 0.75% and an employee share of 3.25%.
2. The total contribution rate was reduced from 6.5% to 4% with effect from 1 July 2019.
3. The wage ceiling for coverage is ₹21,000 per month for general employees and ₹25,000 per month for Persons with Disability.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q18. Under the ESI scheme, the 'wage ceiling' of ₹21,000 per month is best defined as:

• A. the maximum monthly wage up to which an employee is mandatorily covered under the ESI Act
• B. the maximum monthly cash benefit payable to an insured person
• C. the minimum monthly wage an employer must pay an insured worker
• D. the wage above which the employer's rate of contribution is doubled

Q19. With reference to the institutional architecture under the Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948, consider the following statements: 1. The ESI Corporation is chaired by the Union Minister of Labour & Employment, whereas its Standing Committee is chaired by the Secretary, Ministry of Labour & Employment. 2. Although the ESI Act was enacted in 1948, the scheme became operational only in 1952. 3. The Director General is the sole ex-officio member who sits on both the Corporation and the Standing Committee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The ESI Corporation is chaired by the Union Minister of Labour & Employment, whereas its Standing Committee is chaired by the Secretary, Ministry of Labour & Employment.
2. Although the ESI Act was enacted in 1948, the scheme became operational only in 1952.
3. The Director General is the sole ex-officio member who sits on both the Corporation and the Standing Committee.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q20. When the Employees' State Insurance Scheme was first inaugurated in 1952 at Kanpur and simultaneously at Delhi, the initial number of employees brought under its coverage was approximately:

• A. 60,000
• B. 1,20,000
• C. 5,00,000
• D. 12,00,000

Q21. Which Union ministry is the nodal ministry steering India's Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) and 'India Stack' agenda that underpins India's technology diplomacy?

• A. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
• B. Ministry of Finance
• C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
• D. Ministry of External Affairs

Q22. Regarding the constitutional basis of rural employment guarantee legislation in India, consider the following statements: 1. Article 41 directs the State to make effective provision for securing the right to work. 2. Such legislation gives statutory effect to a Directive Principle, which is itself not enforceable by any court. 3. Because Article 41 is a Fundamental Right, every rural worker can directly move the Supreme Court under Article 32 to enforce the 125-day guarantee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Article 41 directs the State to make effective provision for securing the right to work.
2. Such legislation gives statutory effect to a Directive Principle, which is itself not enforceable by any court.
3. Because Article 41 is a Fundamental Right, every rural worker can directly move the Supreme Court under Article 32 to enforce the 125-day guarantee.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q23. With reference to how the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025 differs from MGNREGA in design, consider the following statements: 1. Unlike MGNREGA's manual muster rolls, the Act provides for face authentication-based attendance at worksites. 2. The Act adopts a convergence and saturation-based approach integrating complementary Government schemes. 3. The Act abolishes the issuance of any household-level entitlement card. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Unlike MGNREGA's manual muster rolls, the Act provides for face authentication-based attendance at worksites.
2. The Act adopts a convergence and saturation-based approach integrating complementary Government schemes.
3. The Act abolishes the issuance of any household-level entitlement card.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q24. Who is the Union Minister heading the Ministry steering the transition to the VB-G RAM G Act, who declared that 'No eligible rural worker should remain without work even for a day'?

• A. Shri Shivraj Singh Chouhan
• B. Shri Giriraj Singh
• C. Shri Nitin Gadkari
• D. Dr. Virendra Kumar

Q25. A long-standing structural criticism of MGNREGA was its low statutory cap on administrative expenditure, which the new Act later raised. What was this administrative expenditure ceiling under MGNREGA?

• A. 4%
• B. 6%
• C. 9%
• D. 10%

Q26. MGNREGA, which the VB-G RAM G Act replaces, was originally enacted by Parliament in which year?

• A. 2004
• B. 2005
• C. 2006
• D. 2008

Q27. Consider the following statements about MGNREGA, 2005: 1. It was enacted in 2005 as Act 42 of 2005. 2. It was implemented in phases beginning February 2006. 3. It guaranteed wage employment to every rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work. 4. It guaranteed wage employment to both rural and urban poor households. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. It was enacted in 2005 as Act 42 of 2005.
2. It was implemented in phases beginning February 2006.
3. It guaranteed wage employment to every rural household whose adult members volunteer for unskilled manual work.
4. It guaranteed wage employment to both rural and urban poor households.

• A. 1 and 2
• B. 3 only
• C. 1, 2 and 3
• D. 4 only

Q28. What is the interim Central allocation made for the financial year 2026–27 for the nationwide rollout of the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025?

• A. ₹73,000 crore
• B. ₹86,000 crore
• C. ₹95,692.31 crore
• D. ₹1,05,000 crore

Q29. The ₹95,692.31 crore outlay for 2026–27 — described as the largest-ever Budget Estimate allocation for a rural employment programme — is administered under which Union Ministry?

• A. Ministry of Rural Development
• B. Ministry of Finance
• C. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
• D. Ministry of Labour and Employment

Q30. With reference to changes introduced by the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025 compared with MGNREGA, 2005, consider the following statements: 1. The administrative expenditure ceiling was raised from 6% to 9%. 2. The wage-employment guarantee was raised from 100 days to 125 days. 3. The agricultural pause period available to States was reduced from 60 days to 30 days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The administrative expenditure ceiling was raised from 6% to 9%.
2. The wage-employment guarantee was raised from 100 days to 125 days.
3. The agricultural pause period available to States was reduced from 60 days to 30 days.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3