Governance MCQs for UPSC Prelims — July 2026
Q1. Under the Target Olympic Podium Scheme, what out-of-pocket allowance is paid, and to whom?
- A. Rs. 25,000 a month, paid to every athlete supported under the scheme
- B. Rs. 50,000 a month, paid to athletes placed in the Core Group
- C. Rs. 10,000 a month, paid exclusively for days outside national coaching camps
- D. Rs. 1,00,000 a month, paid to all Olympic and Paralympic medallists
Q2. Consider the following statements comparing India's current sports policy and scheme architecture:
1. Khelo Bharat Niti, 2025 aligns with the National Education Policy 2020 by integrating sports into school curricula and providing specialised teacher training.
2. Khelo Bharat Niti is a policy framework approved by the Union Cabinet, whereas Khelo India is a funded scheme with a defined outlay and period.
3. The Khelo India Mission announced in the Union Budget 2026-27 sets the goal of placing India among the world's top five sporting nations by 2036.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Khelo Bharat Niti, 2025 aligns with the National Education Policy 2020 by integrating sports into school curricula and providing specialised teacher training.
- Khelo Bharat Niti is a policy framework approved by the Union Cabinet, whereas Khelo India is a funded scheme with a defined outlay and period.
- The Khelo India Mission announced in the Union Budget 2026-27 sets the goal of placing India among the world's top five sporting nations by 2036.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q3. The Sports Authority of India, which runs the training-centre network under Khelo India, functions under which one of the following?
- A. The Department of Sports, under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
- B. The Department of Youth Affairs, under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
- C. The Department of School Education and Literacy, under the Ministry of Education
- D. The Department of Higher Education, under the Ministry of Education
Q4. Khelo Bharat Niti, 2025 envisages private participation in building and running sports infrastructure principally through which route?
- A. Public-private partnerships and Corporate Social Responsibility contributions
- B. A dedicated sports cess on corporate turnover, remitted to the Sports Authority of India
- C. Sovereign bonds issued by the Ministry of Finance earmarked for stadium construction
- D. Viability gap funding for sports projects administered through NITI Aayog
Q5. The outlay approved for the revamped sports schemes in July 2026 will be routed through the demand for grants of which Ministry?
- A. The Ministry of Education, which anchors sports integration in school curricula
- B. The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, which administers both the approved schemes
- C. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs, which anchors the promotion of indigenous and traditional games
- D. The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, which certifies coaches and trainers
Q6. The clearance given by the Union Cabinet in July 2026 to the revamped sports schemes is, in budgetary terms, best understood as which one of the following?
- A. Sanction of a five-year outlay within which the money will still be provided through annual budgetary allocations
- B. An immediate one-time release of the entire sanctioned amount to the implementing agency at the outset
- C. A ceiling on the matching contributions payable by State Governments under a centrally sponsored scheme
- D. An in-principle clearance that must be ratified by Parliament through a separate enabling legislation
Q7. Under the revised norms, the financial assistance available to a federation for conducting a national championship in a High-Priority sport has been raised to what amount?
- A. Rs. 51 lakh
- B. Rs. 75 lakh
- C. Rs. 90 lakh
- D. Rs. 2 crore
Q8. With reference to the revised norms of assistance to National Sports Federations, consider the following:
1. At least 20% of a federation's annual budget must be earmarked for grassroots development through its affiliate units.
2. At least 10% of the funding provided under the scheme is to be allocated for development of coaches and technical staff.
3. A federation with an annual budget of Rs. 10 crore or more must appoint a High-Performance Director.
4. At least 25% of the funding provided under the scheme may be used for administrative personnel such as chief executives and managers.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- At least 20% of a federation's annual budget must be earmarked for grassroots development through its affiliate units.
- At least 10% of the funding provided under the scheme is to be allocated for development of coaches and technical staff.
- A federation with an annual budget of Rs. 10 crore or more must appoint a High-Performance Director.
- At least 25% of the funding provided under the scheme may be used for administrative personnel such as chief executives and managers.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1 and 4 only
Q9. The talent-identification centres, training centres and athlete scholarships built up under the Khelo India Scheme since its revamp are operationalised on the ground chiefly by which body?
- A. The Sports Authority of India
- B. The National Anti-Doping Agency of India
- C. The Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education
- D. The National Centre for Sports Science and Research
Q10. In the Revamped Khelo India Programme cleared in 2017, the largest body of intended beneficiaries was covered by which one of its components?
- A. The Pan India Sports Scholarship Scheme for talented athletes in select disciplines
- B. The promotion of selected universities as hubs of sporting excellence
- C. The national physical fitness drive for children in the 10-18 age group
- D. The accreditation and incentivisation of private sports academies across States
Q11. The outlay sanctioned for the revamped Khelo India Scheme in July 2026 is approximately how many times the outlay of the scheme it replaces?
- A. About 3 times
- B. About 5 times
- C. About 8 times
- D. About 10 times
Q12. The figure of Rs. 36,441 crore cleared by the Union Cabinet in July 2026 for the sports sector is best described as which one of the following?
- A. The five-year outlay of the Khelo India Scheme alone, the federation grants being budgeted separately
- B. The five-year combined outlay of the Khelo India Scheme and the Assistance to National Sports Federations
- C. The five-year budget of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, including establishment and secretariat costs
- D. The five-year combined outlay of the Khelo India Scheme and the Target Olympic Podium Scheme
Q13. Consider the following statements about India's Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) across successive Sample Registration System rounds:
1. MMR declined from 130 per lakh live births in 2014-16 to 93 in 2019-21, and further to 87 in 2022-24.
2. India's national MMR now stands below the Sustainable Development Goal 3.1 target of 70 per lakh live births, although several States continue to record levels above that target.
3. Kerala records the lowest MMR among Indian States, and eight States have already attained the Sustainable Development Goal maternal mortality target.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- MMR declined from 130 per lakh live births in 2014-16 to 93 in 2019-21, and further to 87 in 2022-24.
- India's national MMR now stands below the Sustainable Development Goal 3.1 target of 70 per lakh live births, although several States continue to record levels above that target.
- Kerala records the lowest MMR among Indian States, and eight States have already attained the Sustainable Development Goal maternal mortality target.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q14. Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN) is best described as an initiative that:
- A. certifies the quality of care in labour rooms and maternity operation theatres of public health facilities
- B. assures free, dignified and quality care with zero tolerance for denial of services to any woman or newborn at a public health facility
- C. guarantees a cash maternity benefit to every pregnant woman in the country irrespective of parity or income
- D. provides fixed-day free antenatal check-ups on the 9th of every month at designated government facilities
Q15. Consider the following maternal-health indicators and the values attributed to NFHS-6 (2023-24) in the recent official updates:
1. Mothers receiving antenatal care in the first trimester — 76.2 per cent
2. Mothers receiving at least four antenatal care visits — 65.2 per cent
3. Institutional deliveries — 90.6 per cent
4. Maternal Mortality Ratio for 2022-24 — 87 per lakh live births, as estimated by NFHS-6
Which of the above is/are NOT correctly matched?
- Mothers receiving antenatal care in the first trimester — 76.2 per cent
- Mothers receiving at least four antenatal care visits — 65.2 per cent
- Institutional deliveries — 90.6 per cent
- Maternal Mortality Ratio for 2022-24 — 87 per lakh live births, as estimated by NFHS-6
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 3 only
- C. 4 only
- D. 2 and 4
Q16. The National Family Health Survey-6 (2023-24), whose maternal-health findings were cited in the 2026 PMSMA update, was carried out by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare with which body as nodal agency?
- A. The National Statistical Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
- B. The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India
- C. The National Institute of Health and Family Welfare, New Delhi
- D. The International Institute for Population Sciences, Mumbai
Q17. Consider the following statements about PMSMA at its ten-year mark in 2026:
1. Cumulative coverage crossed the one-crore mark within about two years of launch and had risen to more than 7.50 crore pregnant women receiving antenatal services by the decade update.
2. Over the same decade, India's Maternal Mortality Ratio fell from 130 per lakh live births in SRS 2014-16 to 87 in SRS 2022-24, a decline of 43 points.
3. The decade update records that India has, at the national level, attained the Sustainable Development Goal maternal mortality target of below 70 per lakh live births.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Cumulative coverage crossed the one-crore mark within about two years of launch and had risen to more than 7.50 crore pregnant women receiving antenatal services by the decade update.
- Over the same decade, India's Maternal Mortality Ratio fell from 130 per lakh live births in SRS 2014-16 to 87 in SRS 2022-24, a decline of 43 points.
- The decade update records that India has, at the national level, attained the Sustainable Development Goal maternal mortality target of below 70 per lakh live births.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q18. As reported in the 2026 decade-milestone update, quality antenatal care under PMSMA is now being extended nationwide through which of the following primary-care platforms?
- A. Around 25,000 designated First Referral Units
- B. The 90,015 notified SUMAN health facilities
- C. Around 1.6 lakh Common Service Centres
- D. About 1.8 lakh Ayushman Aarogya Mandirs
Q19. Consider the following statements about the identification of high-risk pregnancies under PMSMA:
1. Severe anaemia is among the conditions in the expanded high-risk pregnancy list.
2. Tuberculosis is among the conditions in the expanded high-risk pregnancy list.
3. Multiple pregnancy is among the conditions in the expanded high-risk pregnancy list.
4. A woman identified as high-risk is tagged to the nearest Ayushman Aarogya Mandir for her delivery.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- Severe anaemia is among the conditions in the expanded high-risk pregnancy list.
- Tuberculosis is among the conditions in the expanded high-risk pregnancy list.
- Multiple pregnancy is among the conditions in the expanded high-risk pregnancy list.
- A woman identified as high-risk is tagged to the nearest Ayushman Aarogya Mandir for her delivery.
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q20. Under PMSMA, the primary record on which a woman screened as having a high-risk pregnancy is flagged for continued follow-up is:
- A. A red entry made in the facility's labour room register maintained under LaQshya
- B. A red sticker affixed on her Mother and Child Protection Card
- C. A red-coded referral card issued to her at the nearest First Referral Unit
- D. A red flag placed on her Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) record
Q21. The flagship national awards instituted to recognise the outstanding contribution of volunteering private doctors and of States to the fixed-day antenatal care campaign are known as:
- A. The Kayakalp Awards for cleanliness and infection control in public health facilities
- B. The National Florence Nightingale Awards for outstanding nursing personnel
- C. The 'IPledgeFor9' Achievers Awards
- D. The LaQshya National Quality Certification awards for labour rooms
Q22. Consider the following statements about the fixed-day model of PMSMA:
1. The 9th of every month was chosen as the fixed day because it symbolises the nine months of pregnancy.
2. Where the 9th falls on a holiday, the PMSMA session is shifted to the next working day.
3. Private medical practitioners who volunteer under PMSMA are required to render the free services at their own clinics rather than at government health facilities.
4. A private practitioner may enrol as a PMSMA volunteer by sending an SMS reading 'PMSMA' to 5616115 or by registering on the PMSMA portal.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- The 9th of every month was chosen as the fixed day because it symbolises the nine months of pregnancy.
- Where the 9th falls on a holiday, the PMSMA session is shifted to the next working day.
- Private medical practitioners who volunteer under PMSMA are required to render the free services at their own clinics rather than at government health facilities.
- A private practitioner may enrol as a PMSMA volunteer by sending an SMS reading 'PMSMA' to 5616115 or by registering on the PMSMA portal.
- A. 1, 2 and 3
- B. 1, 2 and 4
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1 and 3 only
Q23. Consider the following statements comparing the original PMSMA design with the Extended PMSMA strategy:
1. Extended PMSMA, introduced in January 2022, provides for individual tracking of each identified high-risk pregnancy with additional antenatal check-ups and continuous monitoring until safe delivery, going beyond the original single fixed-day monthly examination.
2. Extended PMSMA introduced financial incentives for identified high-risk beneficiaries as well as for ASHAs, which the original PMSMA design did not provide.
3. Extended PMSMA discontinued the fixed-day model, shifting PMSMA examinations to any working day of the month at the discretion of the facility.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Extended PMSMA, introduced in January 2022, provides for individual tracking of each identified high-risk pregnancy with additional antenatal check-ups and continuous monitoring until safe delivery, going beyond the original single fixed-day monthly examination.
- Extended PMSMA introduced financial incentives for identified high-risk beneficiaries as well as for ASHAs, which the original PMSMA design did not provide.
- Extended PMSMA discontinued the fixed-day model, shifting PMSMA examinations to any working day of the month at the discretion of the facility.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q24. Consider the following statements about the institutional design of the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA):
1. Its nodal ministry is the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. It is implemented as a component of the National Health Mission.
3. It forms part of the Continuum of Care approach under the RMNCH+A strategy.
4. Under it, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare disburses a cash maternity benefit of ₹5,000 in instalments to every enrolled beneficiary.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- Its nodal ministry is the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- It is implemented as a component of the National Health Mission.
- It forms part of the Continuum of Care approach under the RMNCH+A strategy.
- Under it, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare disburses a cash maternity benefit of ₹5,000 in instalments to every enrolled beneficiary.
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 4 only
- D. 3 and 4
Q25. Consider the following components of the delivery architecture of PM-KISAN:
1. Public Financial Management System — used for routing benefit transfers to beneficiary accounts
2. Unique Identification Authority of India — Aadhaar-based authentication of beneficiaries, including face-authentication e-KYC
3. Kisan e-Mitra — a voice-based artificial intelligence chatbot answering farmers' queries in several languages
4. Income Tax Department databases — integrated with the scheme portal to help screen out ineligible beneficiaries
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- Public Financial Management System — used for routing benefit transfers to beneficiary accounts
- Unique Identification Authority of India — Aadhaar-based authentication of beneficiaries, including face-authentication e-KYC
- Kisan e-Mitra — a voice-based artificial intelligence chatbot answering farmers' queries in several languages
- Income Tax Department databases — integrated with the scheme portal to help screen out ineligible beneficiaries
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2, 3 and 4 only
- C. 1, 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q26. For the purposes of PM-KISAN, the expression 'landholding farmer family' means which one of the following?
- A. A family of husband, wife and minor children owning cultivable land not exceeding two hectares as per the land records of the State or UT
- B. Any person above eighteen years of age engaged in cultivation and registered on the scheme portal, irrespective of ownership of land
- C. A family of husband, wife and dependants of any age that cultivates land, whether owned or leased in, as certified by the Gram Panchayat
- D. A family comprising husband, wife and minor children that owns cultivable land as per the land records of the concerned State or UT
Q27. Under the exclusion criteria of PM-KISAN, retired or superannuated pensioners are kept out of the scheme if their monthly pension is at least how much?
- A. Rs. 5,000
- B. Rs. 10,000
- C. Rs. 15,000
- D. Rs. 25,000
Q28. The continuation of PM-KISAN for the period 2026-27 to 2030-31, approved by the Union Cabinet, is operationalised by which one of the following?
- A. Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B. Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- C. Department of Rural Development, Ministry of Rural Development
- D. Department of Food and Public Distribution, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
Q29. Consider the following components of the delivery architecture of PM-KISAN:
1. Public Financial Management System — used for routing benefit transfers to beneficiary accounts
2. Unique Identification Authority of India — Aadhaar-based authentication of beneficiaries, including face-authentication e-KYC
3. Kisan e-Mitra — a voice-based artificial intelligence chatbot answering farmers' queries in several languages
4. Income Tax Department databases — integrated with the scheme portal to help screen out ineligible beneficiaries
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- Public Financial Management System — used for routing benefit transfers to beneficiary accounts
- Unique Identification Authority of India — Aadhaar-based authentication of beneficiaries, including face-authentication e-KYC
- Kisan e-Mitra — a voice-based artificial intelligence chatbot answering farmers' queries in several languages
- Income Tax Department databases — integrated with the scheme portal to help screen out ineligible beneficiaries
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2, 3 and 4 only
- C. 1, 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q30. For the purposes of PM-KISAN, the expression 'landholding farmer family' means which one of the following?
- A. A family of husband, wife and minor children owning cultivable land not exceeding two hectares as per the land records of the State or UT
- B. Any person above eighteen years of age engaged in cultivation and registered on the scheme portal, irrespective of ownership of land
- C. A family of husband, wife and dependants of any age that cultivates land, whether owned or leased in, as certified by the Gram Panchayat
- D. A family comprising husband, wife and minor children that owns cultivable land as per the land records of the concerned State or UT