Governance MCQs for UPSC Prelims — July 2026

Q1. With reference to reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech under the Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. Security of the State is a ground for reasonable restriction under Article 19(2). 2. 'Public order' was inserted as a ground under Article 19(2) by the First Constitutional Amendment (1951). 3. 'Sedition' is expressly enumerated as a ground under Article 19(2). 4. Sovereignty and integrity of India is a ground under Article 19(2). Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

1. Security of the State is a ground for reasonable restriction under Article 19(2).
2. 'Public order' was inserted as a ground under Article 19(2) by the First Constitutional Amendment (1951).
3. 'Sedition' is expressly enumerated as a ground under Article 19(2).
4. Sovereignty and integrity of India is a ground under Article 19(2).

• A. 1, 2 and 4
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q2. The three new criminal laws — including the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 — which came into force on 1 July 2024, were piloted in Parliament by which Union Ministry?

• A. Ministry of Home Affairs
• B. Ministry of Law and Justice
• C. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
• D. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Q3. Consider the following statements comparing the May 2022 Supreme Court order with the subsequent legislative change: 1. The May 2022 order suspended the operation of Section 124A, whereas the BNS, 2023 removed sedition by replacing the IPC altogether. 2. Under the May 2022 order the Centre stated it was re-examining Section 124A, and the BNS then retained the word 'sedition' in its text. 3. The May 2022 stay was an interim judicial measure, whereas the removal of sedition in 2023 was effected through legislation enacted by Parliament. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. The May 2022 order suspended the operation of Section 124A, whereas the BNS, 2023 removed sedition by replacing the IPC altogether.
2. Under the May 2022 order the Centre stated it was re-examining Section 124A, and the BNS then retained the word 'sedition' in its text.
3. The May 2022 stay was an interim judicial measure, whereas the removal of sedition in 2023 was effected through legislation enacted by Parliament.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. With reference to the Supreme Court's May 2022 interim order on Section 124A, consider the following: 1. The Centre and States were restrained from registering fresh cases for sedition. 2. Pending trials, appeals and proceedings under Section 124A were to be kept in abeyance. 3. The Court declared Section 124A unconstitutional and struck it down. 4. Persons already booked could approach the courts for appropriate relief. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. The Centre and States were restrained from registering fresh cases for sedition.
2. Pending trials, appeals and proceedings under Section 124A were to be kept in abeyance.
3. The Court declared Section 124A unconstitutional and struck it down.
4. Persons already booked could approach the courts for appropriate relief.

• A. 1 and 2
• B. 1, 2 and 4
• C. 2 and 4
• D. 3 only

Q5. Consider the following statements about judicial treatment of sedition: 1. In Balwant Singh v. State of Punjab, raising casual slogans that did not incite public disorder was held not to amount to sedition. 2. In Kedar Nath Singh, the Court read down Section 124A rather than striking it down. 3. The Bench in Kedar Nath Singh comprised three judges. 4. Kedar Nath Singh distinguished disloyalty that excites violence from strong criticism of the government. Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

1. In Balwant Singh v. State of Punjab, raising casual slogans that did not incite public disorder was held not to amount to sedition.
2. In Kedar Nath Singh, the Court read down Section 124A rather than striking it down.
3. The Bench in Kedar Nath Singh comprised three judges.
4. Kedar Nath Singh distinguished disloyalty that excites violence from strong criticism of the government.

• A. 1, 2 and 4
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q6. With reference to Supreme Court jurisprudence on sedition, consider the following statements: 1. Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) upheld the constitutional validity of Section 124A. 2. Kedar Nath Singh was decided by a five-judge Constitution Bench. 3. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down Section 124A as unconstitutional. 4. In Kedar Nath Singh, the offence was confined to acts having a tendency to incite violence or public disorder. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) upheld the constitutional validity of Section 124A.
2. Kedar Nath Singh was decided by a five-judge Constitution Bench.
3. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down Section 124A as unconstitutional.
4. In Kedar Nath Singh, the offence was confined to acts having a tendency to incite violence or public disorder.

• A. 1 and 2
• B. 2 and 4
• C. 1, 2 and 4
• D. 3 only

Q7. Under Section 124A IPC, the term 'disaffection' was judicially understood to mean which one of the following?

• A. Disloyalty and all feelings of enmity towards the government established by law
• B. Mere disapproval of specific government measures expressed through lawful means
• C. Any personal criticism directed at an individual minister
• D. Wilful failure to comply with a lawful tax demand

Q8. Under Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, apart from imprisonment for life, what is the maximum term of imprisonment (in years) that may alternatively be imposed?

• A. Three years
• B. Five years
• C. Seven years
• D. Ten years

Q9. The offence of committing 'acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India' — which replaced the erstwhile offence of sedition — is contained in which one of the following?

• A. Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
• B. Section 124A retained as such in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
• C. Section 150 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
• D. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000

Q10. The codification of Hindu personal law through the 'Hindu Code Bills', enacted between 1955 and 1956, was carried out through how many separate statutes?

• A. Two
• B. Three
• C. Four
• D. Six

Q11. The consultation paper on 'Reform of Family Law' (2018), which observed that a Uniform Civil Code was 'neither necessary nor desirable at this stage', was released by which numbered Law Commission of India?

• A. 18th Law Commission
• B. 20th Law Commission
• C. 21st Law Commission
• D. 22nd Law Commission

Q12. Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, subjects such as marriage and divorce, on which a Uniform Civil Code would legislate, fall under which one of the following?

• A. Entry 5 of the Concurrent List (List III)
• B. Entry 5 of the State List (List II)
• C. Entry 5 of the Union List (List I)
• D. Entry 26 of the Concurrent List (List III)

Q13. Which one of the following best describes a 'Uniform Civil Code' as sought to be introduced by States such as Uttarakhand and West Bengal?

• A. A common set of laws governing personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance and adoption applicable to all citizens irrespective of religion
• B. A code that applies exclusively to civil servants of the Union and the States in service matters
• C. A uniform code of criminal procedure applicable across all States
• D. A code governing only civil disputes such as contracts and torts, applied uniformly across religions

Q14. The panel to examine West Bengal's draft Uniform Civil Code Bill in 2026 was constituted by which one of the following authorities?

• A. The West Bengal Cabinet (Council of Ministers)
• B. The Governor of West Bengal
• C. The Calcutta High Court
• D. The Union Ministry of Law and Justice

Q15. The committee constituted by the West Bengal Cabinet in 2026 to scrutinise the State's draft Uniform Civil Code Bill is headed by which one of the following?

• A. Justice (Retd.) Ranjana Prakash Desai
• B. Justice (Retd.) B. S. Chauhan
• C. Justice (Retd.) Rohinton Fali Nariman
• D. Justice (Retd.) A. K. Sikri

Q16. Which one of the following was the first State in India to enact its own Uniform Civil Code legislation after Independence?

• A. Uttarakhand
• B. Gujarat
• C. Goa
• D. Assam

Q17. The Uniform Civil Code is provided for in the Constitution of India under which one of the following?

• A. Article 44, Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy
• B. Article 25, Part III – Fundamental Rights
• C. Article 39A, Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy
• D. Article 51A, Part IVA – Fundamental Duties

Q18. In the context of the 2026 CBSE controversy, 'On-Screen Marking (OSM)' refers to which one of the following?

• A. A system in which physical answer scripts are scanned and evaluated digitally by examiners on a secure online platform
• B. An artificial-intelligence system that automatically grades answer scripts without human examiners
• C. A facility that lets students view their provisional marks in real time while the exam is in progress
• D. The replacement of pen-and-paper examinations by answering questions directly on a computer screen

Q19. Which one of the following statements correctly describes CBSE's adoption of the On-Screen Marking (OSM) system that triggered the 2026 controversy?

• A. OSM has always been CBSE's exclusive evaluation method since the Board's inception
• B. OSM was rolled out at scale for Class 12 answer-script evaluation for the first time in 2026
• C. OSM was adopted for Class 12 only after being used for Class 10 for a full decade
• D. OSM was mandated for CBSE by a specific Act of Parliament passed in 2026

Q20. The overall administrative and executive head of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) is designated as the:

• A. Director
• B. Chairperson
• C. Controller of Examinations
• D. Regional Officer

Q21. Which one of the following best describes the legal and institutional status of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)?

• A. A statutory body created by a dedicated Act of Parliament
• B. A registered society functioning as an autonomous body under the Union Ministry of Education
• C. A constitutional body established under a specific Article of the Constitution
• D. A public sector undertaking incorporated under the Companies Act

Q22. Which single Article of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal against any order of a tribunal such as the NCLAT?

• A. Article 136
• B. Article 32
• C. Article 226
• D. Article 142

Q23. In describing AI-hallucinated precedents as the 'methyl isocyanate of law', how many descriptive adjectives did the Supreme Court string together to characterise the danger?

• A. Two
• B. Three
• C. Four
• D. Five

Q24. Under which statute is the Bar Council of India established, and under which section is professional misconduct of advocates dealt with?

• A. Advocates Act, 1961 — misconduct under Section 35
• B. Advocates Act, 1961 — misconduct under Section 7
• C. Bar Councils Act, 1926 — misconduct under Section 35
• D. Companies Act, 2013 — misconduct under Section 408

Q25. In its judgment, the Supreme Court directed which body to constitute a committee of experts to examine the use of artificial intelligence in adjudication?

• A. The Bar Council of India
• B. The Law Commission of India
• C. NITI Aayog
• D. The Ministry of Law and Justice

Q26. Which one of the following most accurately describes the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)?

• A. A tribunal constituted under Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013 to hear appeals against orders of the NCLT
• B. The original adjudicating authority for the corporate insolvency resolution process under the IBC
• C. The regulator that oversees insolvency professionals and information utilities
• D. A dedicated bench of the High Court that hears company-law appeals

Q27. The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is constituted under which one of the following provisions?

• A. Section 408 of the Companies Act, 2013
• B. Section 410 of the Companies Act, 2013
• C. Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
• D. Section 12 of the Advocates Act, 1961

Q28. With reference to the Supreme Court's ruling in Pooja Ramesh Singh v. J&K Bank, consider the following: 1. The Bench comprised Justices P.S. Narasimha and Alok Aradhe. 2. The corporate debtor in the insolvency matter was Essel Infraprojects. 3. The Section 7 application had been filed by Jammu & Kashmir Bank. 4. The fictitious AI-generated precedents were originally produced by the Supreme Court itself. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

1. The Bench comprised Justices P.S. Narasimha and Alok Aradhe.
2. The corporate debtor in the insolvency matter was Essel Infraprojects.
3. The Section 7 application had been filed by Jammu & Kashmir Bank.
4. The fictitious AI-generated precedents were originally produced by the Supreme Court itself.

• A. 1, 2 and 3
• B. 1 and 4
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1 and 3 only

Q29. In Pooja Ramesh Singh v. Jammu & Kashmir Bank, how many judges constituted the Supreme Court Bench that set aside the AI-tainted insolvency order?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Five

Q30. Which one of the following, launched in 2014, is the flagship centrally sponsored scheme for the development of the AYUSH systems of medicine?

• A. National AYUSH Mission
• B. National Rural Health Mission
• C. Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana
• D. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana