International Relations MCQs for UPSC Prelims — June 2026

Q1. In which year were India–Greece bilateral relations elevated to the status of a 'Strategic Partnership'?

• A. 2018
• B. 2021
• C. 2023
• D. 2026

Q2. Regarding India's declaratory nuclear positions reaffirmed at UN disarmament forums in 2025, consider the following: 1. India reaffirmed its No First Use commitment. 2. India supports universal, non-discriminatory and verifiable nuclear disarmament. 3. India is a supporter of the Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW). 4. India links nuclear disarmament to a step-by-step process under an agreed multilateral framework. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

1. India reaffirmed its No First Use commitment.
2. India supports universal, non-discriminatory and verifiable nuclear disarmament.
3. India is a supporter of the Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW).
4. India links nuclear disarmament to a step-by-step process under an agreed multilateral framework.

• A. 1, 2 and 4
• B. 1 and 3
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. India's Nuclear Command Authority is composed of how many councils?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Q4. With reference to India's 2003 nuclear doctrine, consider the following as stated pillars: 1. No First Use — nuclear weapons to be used only in retaliation against a nuclear attack on Indian territory or forces. 2. Nuclear retaliation to a first strike will be massive and designed to inflict unacceptable damage. 3. Non-use of nuclear weapons against non-nuclear-weapon states. 4. Authorisation to use nuclear weapons rests solely with the military Chief of Defence Staff. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

1. No First Use — nuclear weapons to be used only in retaliation against a nuclear attack on Indian territory or forces.
2. Nuclear retaliation to a first strike will be massive and designed to inflict unacceptable damage.
3. Non-use of nuclear weapons against non-nuclear-weapon states.
4. Authorisation to use nuclear weapons rests solely with the military Chief of Defence Staff.

• A. 1, 2 and 3
• B. 1 and 4
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 2 and 4

Q5. Which single pillar of India's nuclear doctrine is the one that, by itself, restricts India to using nuclear weapons only as a retaliatory second strike?

• A. No First Use
• B. Credible minimum deterrence
• C. Massive retaliation
• D. Non-use against non-nuclear-weapon states

Q6. In SIPRI's 2026 classification of India's nuclear forces, the term 'operationally deployed' most precisely describes warheads that are —

• A. mated with their delivery systems and positioned with operational forces, ready for use
• B. held in central storage de-mated from launchers, as in a recessed-deterrence posture
• C. retired from service and awaiting dismantlement
• D. assembled for testing but not assigned to any military formation

Q7. The Codex Alimentarius Commission, whose standards FSSAI seeks to harmonise Indian food standards with, was established jointly under the authority of which two organisations?

• A. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and World Health Organization (WHO)
• B. World Trade Organization (WTO) and Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
• C. World Health Organization (WHO) and UN Environment Programme (UNEP)
• D. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and UN Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO)

Q8. Which one of the following is the independent, quasi-judicial body that monitors the implementation of the UN international drug-control conventions?

• A. International Narcotics Control Board
• B. Commission on Narcotic Drugs
• C. UN Office on Drugs and Crime
• D. WHO Expert Committee on Drug Dependence

Q9. When India acceded to the Missile Technology Control Regime in 2016, it joined as which numbered member of the grouping?

• A. 33rd
• B. 34th
• C. 35th
• D. 36th

Q10. With reference to states recognised as possessing Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology that India joined with its Agni-5 test, consider the following countries: 1. United Kingdom 2. France 3. China 4. Germany Which of the above is/are NOT correctly identified as a MIRV-possessing state?

1. United Kingdom
2. France
3. China
4. Germany

• A. 1 and 3
• B. 2 only
• C. 1, 2 and 3
• D. 4 only

Q11. Consider the following statements about features of the Israel–Lebanon frontier. Which of the statements given above is/are correctly identified?

1. Blue Line — a UN-set 'line of withdrawal' established in 2000, not an international border.
2. Shebaa Farms — a disputed area occupied by Israel and claimed by Lebanon and Syria.
3. Litani River — the line to north of which Hezbollah was to withdraw under Resolution 1701.
4. Golan Heights — territory internationally recognised as part of Lebanon.

• A. 1, 2 and 3
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 3 and 4

Q12. With reference to UN Security Council Resolution 1701, consider the following statements. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. It called for the disarmament of all armed groups in Lebanon.
2. It authorised increasing UNIFIL to a maximum strength of 15,000 troops.
3. It provided that only UNIFIL and the Lebanese army may operate south of the Litani River.
4. It was adopted by the Security Council in 2000 to confirm Israel's withdrawal.

• A. 4 only
• B. 1 and 4
• C. 3 and 4
• D. 2 only

Q13. Under Lebanon's confessional power-sharing system, as reaffirmed by the 1989 Taif Agreement, the office of President of the Republic is reserved for a member of which community?

• A. Maronite Christian
• B. Sunni Muslim
• C. Shia Muslim
• D. Greek Orthodox Christian

Q14. Under the June 2026 Lebanon–Israel framework agreement, the progressive Israeli redeployment from Lebanese territory is conditioned primarily on which one of the following?

• A. Verified disarmament of non-state armed groups
• B. Hezbollah's withdrawal to north of the Litani River
• C. Deployment of UNIFIL into the pilot zones
• D. Mutual diplomatic recognition between Israel and Lebanon

Q15. The June 2026 Lebanon–Israel framework was signed in the presence of which US official, who heads the department exclusively charged with conducting US foreign diplomacy?

• A. Secretary of State
• B. Secretary of Defense
• C. National Security Advisor
• D. United States Trade Representative

Q16. Under the 2020 Abraham Accords, which was the first Arab state to sign a normalization agreement with Israel, alongside Bahrain, in Washington?

• A. United Arab Emirates
• B. Sudan
• C. Morocco
• D. Saudi Arabia

Q17. With reference to the Amal Movement, consider the following statements. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. The word 'Amal' means 'Hope' in Arabic.
2. Amal is an acronym for Afwaj al-Muqawamah al-Lubnaniyyah (Lebanese Resistance Detachments).
3. Amal is a predominantly Sunni political movement.
4. Nabih Berri is the leader of the Amal Movement.

• A. 3 only
• B. 1 and 3
• C. 3 and 4
• D. 2 only

Q18. Nabih Berri, who publicly rejected the 2026 Lebanon–Israel framework, holds which official state office in Lebanon?

• A. Speaker of Parliament
• B. Prime Minister
• C. President of the Republic
• D. Minister of Defence

Q19. With reference to Hezbollah's founding aims and backing, consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Driving Israeli forces out of Lebanon was among its founding objectives.
2. Iran provided it substantial logistical support.
3. Hezbollah has never contested elections to the Lebanese Parliament.
4. Establishing an Islamic republic in Lebanon was among its stated goals.

• A. 1, 2 and 4
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 3 and 4

Q20. With reference to the origins and structure of Hezbollah, consider the following statements. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. It was formed in the aftermath of the 1982 Israeli invasion of Lebanon.
2. It drew much of its early manpower from radical members of the Amal movement.
3. It was founded as the armed wing of the secular Lebanese Communist Party.
4. It first won seats in Lebanon's parliament during the 1990s.

• A. 3 only
• B. 1 and 3
• C. 3 and 4
• D. 2 and 3

Q21. With reference to the November 2024 Lebanon–Israel ceasefire agreement, consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. It required Hezbollah to withdraw its forces to north of the Litani River.
2. The monitoring and implementation mechanism set up under it was chaired by France.
3. It mandated an initial 60-day cessation of hostilities.
4. About 5,000 Lebanese Army troops were to deploy to southern Lebanon.

• A. 1, 3 and 4
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q22. Under the WTO/GATT framework, the 'Most-Favoured-Nation' (MFN) principle requires that a member:

• A. Extend to all WTO members any trade advantage it grants to the products of any one member
• B. Treat imported goods no less favourably than 'like' domestically produced goods
• C. Grant developing countries non-reciprocal preferential tariff access
• D. Bind its tariff rates at zero for all members of a customs union

Q23. In the RCEP negotiations, the 'auto-trigger safeguard mechanism' that India demanded but did not obtain refers to a provision that would have:

• A. Automatically raised tariffs once imports from any member surged beyond a specified threshold
• B. Automatically conferred most-favoured-nation status on all member states
• C. Automatically resolved trade disputes through binding arbitration without a panel
• D. Automatically reduced tariffs to zero in a phased manner over a fixed period

Q24. The U.S. 'Russian oil' penalty tariff on India was triggered by the fact that, after 2022, which country had become the single largest source of India's crude oil imports?

• A. Russia
• B. Iraq
• C. Saudi Arabia
• D. United Arab Emirates

Q25. On the Indian side, the negotiations for the India-U.S. Bilateral Trade Agreement are led by the chief negotiator drawn from which of the following?

• A. Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry
• B. Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
• C. Ministry of External Affairs
• D. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)

Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the India-U.S. Bilateral Trade Agreement process: 1. The BTA was formally announced by Prime Minister Modi and President Trump in February 2025. 2. Under the February 2026 interim framework, the U.S. agreed to apply a reciprocal tariff of 18% on Indian goods, reduced from a peak of 50%. 3. The February 2026 interim framework included tariff reductions by India on dairy products and wheat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The BTA was formally announced by Prime Minister Modi and President Trump in February 2025.
2. Under the February 2026 interim framework, the U.S. agreed to apply a reciprocal tariff of 18% on Indian goods, reduced from a peak of 50%.
3. The February 2026 interim framework included tariff reductions by India on dairy products and wheat.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q27. With reference to the U.S. Supreme Court's 2026 decision on tariffs imposed under IEEPA, consider the following statements: 1. The Court held that IEEPA does not authorise the President to impose tariffs. 2. The case was decided as Learning Resources, Inc. v. Trump. 3. Following the ruling, the President relied on Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act, 1962 to impose replacement tariffs. 4. IEEPA was enacted in 1977. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

1. The Court held that IEEPA does not authorise the President to impose tariffs.
2. The case was decided as Learning Resources, Inc. v. Trump.
3. Following the ruling, the President relied on Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act, 1962 to impose replacement tariffs.
4. IEEPA was enacted in 1977.

• A. 1, 2 and 4
• B. 1, 3 and 4
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1 and 2 only

Q28. Sanctions and trade restrictions imposed by the U.S. President under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA), 1977 are principally administered and enforced by which of the following bodies?

• A. Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC), Department of the Treasury
• B. Bureau of Industry and Security, Department of Commerce
• C. Office of the United States Trade Representative (USTR)
• D. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security

Q29. How many global targets does the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015–2030 set out?

• A. Four
• B. Five
• C. Seven
• D. Ten

Q30. The Sustainable Development Goal target of reducing the global Maternal Mortality Ratio to less than 70 per lakh live births by 2030 was adopted by the United Nations in which year?

• A. 2000
• B. 2012
• C. 2015
• D. 2016