Polity MCQs for UPSC Prelims — January 2026

Q1. While staying the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026, the Supreme Court directed that the 2012 Equity Regulations would continue to apply until further orders. This direction was issued in exercise of the Court's powers under which one of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

• A. Article 32
• B. Article 136
• C. Article 142
• D. Article 226

Q2. The Supreme Court Bench that on 29 January 2026 stayed the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026 consisted of how many judges?

• A. Two
• B. Three
• C. Five
• D. Seven

Q3. The India-AI Impact Summit 2026, held at Bharat Mandapam, was organised by which one of the following Union ministries?

• A. Ministry of Science and Technology
• B. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
• C. NITI Aayog
• D. Ministry of Education

Q4. At the Union level, the Trade Unions Act, 1926 and the consolidated Labour Codes (2019–2020) governing the rights of trade unions whose protests followed the Supreme Court's January 2026 observation are administered by which one of the following?

• A. Ministry of Labour and Employment
• B. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
• C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
• D. Ministry of Home Affairs

Q5. With reference to how the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 differs from the Trade Unions Act, 1926 (which it subsumes), consider the following statements: 1. While the 1926 Act was enacted in the colonial period, the 2020 Code is part of the post-2019 consolidation of central labour laws. 2. The 2020 Code introduces the concept of a 'negotiating union' or 'negotiating council' for collective bargaining, which was absent in the 1926 Act. 3. Unlike the 1926 Act, the 2020 Code withdraws the protection of the right to form associations or unions guaranteed under Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. While the 1926 Act was enacted in the colonial period, the 2020 Code is part of the post-2019 consolidation of central labour laws.
2. The 2020 Code introduces the concept of a 'negotiating union' or 'negotiating council' for collective bargaining, which was absent in the 1926 Act.
3. Unlike the 1926 Act, the 2020 Code withdraws the protection of the right to form associations or unions guaranteed under Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q6. With reference to the constitutional and statutory framework underlying the trade unions' response to the Supreme Court's January 2026 observation on industrial stagnation, consider the following statements: 1. Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution guarantees the right to form associations or unions as a Fundamental Right. 2. Reasonable restrictions on this right can be imposed by the State under Article 19(4). 3. The Trade Unions Act, 1926 provides legal immunity to registered trade union office-bearers for bonafide trade-union activities. 4. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 places an absolute and permanent prohibition on strikes in all private-sector industries. Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

1. Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution guarantees the right to form associations or unions as a Fundamental Right.
2. Reasonable restrictions on this right can be imposed by the State under Article 19(4).
3. The Trade Unions Act, 1926 provides legal immunity to registered trade union office-bearers for bonafide trade-union activities.
4. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 places an absolute and permanent prohibition on strikes in all private-sector industries.

• A. 1 and 3 only
• B. 1, 2 and 3 only
• C. 2 and 4 only
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q7. The Government of India between 2019 and 2020 consolidated 29 central labour laws — including the Trade Unions Act, 1926 — into how many Labour Codes?

• A. Two
• B. Three
• C. Four
• D. Five

Q8. With reference to the Public Interest Litigation disposed of by the Supreme Court in January 2026 that triggered protests by central trade unions, consider the following statements: 1. The PIL was filed by an industry association representing manufacturing employers. 2. The Bench held that fixing minimum wages for domestic workers falls within the policy domain of the executive and the legislatures. 3. The Bench orally observed that trade unionism was responsible for stalling industrial growth in the country. 4. The PIL had specifically sought statutory recognition of minimum wages for domestic workers. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

1. The PIL was filed by an industry association representing manufacturing employers.
2. The Bench held that fixing minimum wages for domestic workers falls within the policy domain of the executive and the legislatures.
3. The Bench orally observed that trade unionism was responsible for stalling industrial growth in the country.
4. The PIL had specifically sought statutory recognition of minimum wages for domestic workers.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2 and 4 only
• D. 3 and 4 only

Q9. Comparing the National Guidelines for Stem Cell Research, 2017 with the Supreme Court's 2026 judgment in Yash Charitable Trust v. Union of India, consider the following statements: 1. The 2017 Guidelines had permitted stem cell therapy as a routine clinical service for Autism Spectrum Disorder, a position now overturned by the 2026 judgment. 2. While the 2017 Guidelines lacked binding statutory force, the 2026 judgment directs the constitution of a dedicated national regulatory authority for stem cell oversight. 3. Both the 2017 Guidelines and the 2026 judgment treat the use of stem cell therapy outside an approved and monitored clinical trial — for indications other than recognised standard-care exceptions — as impermissible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The 2017 Guidelines had permitted stem cell therapy as a routine clinical service for Autism Spectrum Disorder, a position now overturned by the 2026 judgment.
2. While the 2017 Guidelines lacked binding statutory force, the 2026 judgment directs the constitution of a dedicated national regulatory authority for stem cell oversight.
3. Both the 2017 Guidelines and the 2026 judgment treat the use of stem cell therapy outside an approved and monitored clinical trial — for indications other than recognised standard-care exceptions — as impermissible.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q10. Following the Supreme Court's 2026 ruling in Yash Charitable Trust v. Union of India, which one of the following bodies issued the advisory directing medical colleges, institutions and registered medical practitioners to restrict stem cell therapy to the 32 conditions approved on ICMR recommendations?

• A. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
• B. Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI)
• C. Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS)
• D. National Medical Commission (NMC)

Q11. With reference to the regulation of stem cell therapy in India following the Supreme Court's ruling in Yash Charitable Trust v. Union of India (2026), consider the following statements: 1. Autologous bone marrow transplantation is recognised as standard clinical care under the National Guidelines for Stem Cell Research, 2017. 2. Epithelial therapies for corneal surface disorders are recognised as standard clinical care under the same guidelines. 3. Stem cell therapy for Autism Spectrum Disorder is among the indications approved by the Indian Council of Medical Research as standard care. 4. Apart from recognised standard-care indications, any other use of stem cells in patients is treated as investigational and permissible only within an approved and monitored clinical trial. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. Autologous bone marrow transplantation is recognised as standard clinical care under the National Guidelines for Stem Cell Research, 2017.
2. Epithelial therapies for corneal surface disorders are recognised as standard clinical care under the same guidelines.
3. Stem cell therapy for Autism Spectrum Disorder is among the indications approved by the Indian Council of Medical Research as standard care.
4. Apart from recognised standard-care indications, any other use of stem cells in patients is treated as investigational and permissible only within an approved and monitored clinical trial.

• A. 1, 2 and 3 only
• B. 2 and 4 only
• C. 1, 2 and 4 only
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q12. The UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026 were notified by a statutory body functioning under which one of the following?

• A. Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education
• B. Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education
• C. Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
• D. Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Q13. With reference to the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026, which of the following categories are mandatorily required to have representation on the Equity Committee of a higher education institution? 1. Scheduled Castes 2. Scheduled Tribes 3. Persons with Disabilities 4. Religious minorities Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

1. Scheduled Castes
2. Scheduled Tribes
3. Persons with Disabilities
4. Religious minorities

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 1, 2 and 3 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4 only
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q14. Under the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026, within how many working days is the Equity Committee of a higher education institution required to dispose of a standard (non-severe) discrimination complaint?

• A. 7 working days
• B. 15 working days
• C. 30 working days
• D. 45 working days

Q15. With reference to the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026 as compared with the UGC Promotion of Equity in Higher Educational Institutions Regulations, 2012, consider the following statements: 1. The 2012 framework operated as advisory guidelines, whereas the 2026 Regulations were notified as legally enforceable mandates through the Gazette of India. 2. Unlike the 2012 framework, the 2026 Regulations omitted ragging from their scope of covered conduct. 3. While the 2012 Regulations applied only to central universities, the 2026 Regulations for the first time extended coverage to all higher education institutions including private universities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The 2012 framework operated as advisory guidelines, whereas the 2026 Regulations were notified as legally enforceable mandates through the Gazette of India.
2. Unlike the 2012 framework, the 2026 Regulations omitted ragging from their scope of covered conduct.
3. While the 2012 Regulations applied only to central universities, the 2026 Regulations for the first time extended coverage to all higher education institutions including private universities.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q16. In the context of the University Grants Commission (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026, what is the 'Equal Opportunity Centre (EOC)'?

• A. An external appellate body constituted by the UGC to hear appeals against decisions of an institution's Equity Committee
• B. The mandatory nodal body within every higher education institution responsible for implementing equity policies and handling discrimination grievances
• C. A standing committee of Parliament that audits anti-discrimination compliance of central universities
• D. A judicial tribunal under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to adjudicate caste-discrimination complaints in HEIs

Q17. Which constitutional provision was identified as the primary basis by the Supreme Court in its January 2026 ruling that menstrual health in schools is a fundamental right?

• A. Article 14 – Right to Equality
• B. Article 19 – Right to Freedom
• C. Article 21 – Right to Life and Personal Liberty
• D. Article 21A – Right to Education

Q18. With reference to the Centre's 'Menstrual Hygiene Policy for School Going Girls' that the Supreme Court directed to be implemented nationwide in January 2026, consider the following: 1. The policy was framed by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. 2. The policy was formulated in coordination with the Ministry of Jal Shakti. 3. The policy was formulated in coordination with the Ministry of Education. 4. The policy was framed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development as the nodal ministry. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

1. The policy was framed by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
2. The policy was formulated in coordination with the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
3. The policy was formulated in coordination with the Ministry of Education.
4. The policy was framed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development as the nodal ministry.

• A. 1, 2 and 3 only
• B. 2 and 4 only
• C. 1 and 4 only
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q19. In which classes are girls covered by the Centre's 'Menstrual Hygiene Policy for School Going Girls', whose nationwide implementation was directed by the Supreme Court in January 2026?

• A. Classes 1 to 5
• B. Classes 6 to 12
• C. Classes 8 to 10
• D. Classes 9 to 12

Q20. In the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026, the term 'caste-based discrimination' as defined in Regulation 3(c) refers to discrimination on the basis of caste or tribe:

• A. against members of the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes only
• B. against any individual belonging to a notified caste or tribal community in India
• C. against members of any social group that is historically disadvantaged in education
• D. only against persons covered under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989

Q21. Under the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026, who is designated as the chairperson of the Equity Committee that every higher educational institution must constitute?

• A. The head of the institution (e.g., Vice-Chancellor / Principal / Director)
• B. A UGC nominee from outside the institution
• C. The senior-most SC/ST faculty member in the institution
• D. The institution's Ombudsperson appointed by the Visitor

Q22. With reference to the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026, consider the following statements: 1. They were notified by the UGC, a statutory body established under the UGC Act, 1956. 2. They replace the earlier UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Educational Institutions) Regulations, 2012. 3. They define 'caste-based discrimination' in Regulation 3(c) as discrimination on the basis of caste or tribe against members of SC, ST and OBC. 4. They have been upheld by the Supreme Court as consistent with Article 14 of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

1. They were notified by the UGC, a statutory body established under the UGC Act, 1956.
2. They replace the earlier UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Educational Institutions) Regulations, 2012.
3. They define 'caste-based discrimination' in Regulation 3(c) as discrimination on the basis of caste or tribe against members of SC, ST and OBC.
4. They have been upheld by the Supreme Court as consistent with Article 14 of the Constitution.

• A. 1 and 2
• B. 3 only
• C. 4 only
• D. 2 and 4

Q23. With reference to the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026, consider the following institutional mechanisms: 1. Equity Committee chaired by the head of the institution 2. Equity Squads tasked with mobile vigilance on the campus 3. Equity Ambassadors in each department, hostel and facility 4. A State-level UGC Equity Tribunal headed by a sitting High Court judge Which of the above are correctly identified as bodies mandated by the 2026 Regulations?

1. Equity Committee chaired by the head of the institution
2. Equity Squads tasked with mobile vigilance on the campus
3. Equity Ambassadors in each department, hostel and facility
4. A State-level UGC Equity Tribunal headed by a sitting High Court judge

• A. 1, 2 and 3 only
• B. 1 and 4 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4 only
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q24. Under the aegis of which Union ministry were the University Grants Commission (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026 notified?

• A. Ministry of Education
• B. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
• C. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
• D. Ministry of Minority Affairs

Q25. The Economic Survey 2025-26, which highlighted the notable rise in India's crude oil source countries, was prepared under the authority of the Chief Economic Advisor functioning in which of the following Union Ministries/bodies?

• A. NITI Aayog
• B. Prime Minister's Office
• C. Ministry of Finance (Department of Economic Affairs)
• D. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

Q26. Which of the following is the nodal Union Ministry for administering India's crude oil import policy and the diversification of the crude oil source basket highlighted in the Economic Survey 2025-26?

• A. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
• B. Ministry of External Affairs
• C. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
• D. Ministry of Finance

Q27. The Supreme Court Bench that disposed of Penn Thozhilalargal Sangam v. Union of India on 29 January 2026, asking States to evolve a plan on domestic workers' wages, was headed by which one of the following?

• A. Chief Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
• B. Chief Justice Sanjiv Khanna
• C. Chief Justice B.R. Gavai
• D. Chief Justice Surya Kant

Q28. With reference to how the Code on Wages, 2019 differs from the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, consider the following statements: 1. Whereas the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 applied minimum wages only to 'scheduled employments', the Code on Wages, 2019 extends coverage to all employments in both organised and unorganised sectors. 2. The Code on Wages, 2019 introduces a statutory 'floor wage' to be fixed by the Central Government, a concept absent in the Minimum Wages Act, 1948. 3. Unlike the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the Code on Wages, 2019 explicitly lists 'domestic work' as a scheduled employment at the Central level, making State notification unnecessary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Whereas the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 applied minimum wages only to 'scheduled employments', the Code on Wages, 2019 extends coverage to all employments in both organised and unorganised sectors.
2. The Code on Wages, 2019 introduces a statutory 'floor wage' to be fixed by the Central Government, a concept absent in the Minimum Wages Act, 1948.
3. Unlike the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the Code on Wages, 2019 explicitly lists 'domestic work' as a scheduled employment at the Central level, making State notification unnecessary.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q29. In Penn Thozhilalargal Sangam v. Union of India (2026), the petitioners' argument that non-payment of minimum wages to domestic workers amounts to 'forced labour' was anchored primarily on which one of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

• A. Article 19
• B. Article 21
• C. Article 23
• D. Article 24

Q30. Which one of the following is the nodal Union Ministry for the implementation of the National Livestock Mission and the Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF)?

• A. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare
• B. Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
• C. Ministry of Rural Development
• D. Ministry of Food Processing Industries