Polity MCQs for UPSC Prelims — January 2026

Q1. The Solid Waste Management Rules, which provide the statutory basis for mapping and time-bound bioremediation of legacy dumpsites, are notified under which one of the following Acts?

  • A. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  • B. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
  • C. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
  • D. National Green Tribunal Act, 2010

Q2. With reference to the administration of waqf properties in India, consider the following statements: 1. A mutawalli is the manager of a waqf and does not own the waqf property. 2. A Waqf Tribunal is deemed to be a civil court exercising powers under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. 3. The maximum lease period of waqf property was raised from three years to thirty years by the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2013. 4. A mutawalli is the person who originally dedicates his own property to create the waqf. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. A mutawalli is the manager of a waqf and does not own the waqf property.
  2. A Waqf Tribunal is deemed to be a civil court exercising powers under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
  3. The maximum lease period of waqf property was raised from three years to thirty years by the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2013.
  4. A mutawalli is the person who originally dedicates his own property to create the waqf.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q3. Among the six centrally notified minority communities in India, which one was the most recent to be added to the notified list?

  • A. Jains
  • B. Buddhists
  • C. Sikhs
  • D. Zoroastrians (Parsis)

Q4. Following the launch of the UMEED Central Portal, the window granted to Waqf Boards to upload waqf property details before its closure on 6 December 2025 was of how many months' duration?

  • A. Six months
  • B. Three months
  • C. Nine months
  • D. Twelve months

Q5. The 'upload window' that closed on 6 December 2025 on the UMEED Central Portal refers to the period fixed for which one of the following?

  • A. Uploading and registering details of waqf properties by Waqf Boards/Mutawallis on the portal
  • B. Filing of public objections against completed waqf surveys before the Tribunal
  • C. Disposal of pending waqf title disputes by Waqf Tribunals
  • D. Submission of annual audited accounts of waqf institutions to the Central Waqf Council

Q6. Who is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Central Waqf Council?

  • A. The Union Minister in charge of Minority Affairs
  • B. The Chairperson of a State Waqf Board
  • C. The Chief Executive Officer of the Central Waqf Council
  • D. The Survey Commissioner of Waqf

Q7. The Central Waqf Council, the apex advisory body on the administration of Auqaf, was set up as a statutory body in which year?

  • A. 1964
  • B. 1954
  • C. 1995
  • D. 2006

Q8. Consider the following statements comparing the position under the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 with the earlier framework: 1. It restores the requirement that only a person practising Islam for at least five years may dedicate his own property as waqf. 2. It does away with the creation of new waqf through 'waqf by user'. 3. It introduces, for the very first time in Indian law, the appointment of Survey Commissioners to survey waqf properties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. It restores the requirement that only a person practising Islam for at least five years may dedicate his own property as waqf.
  2. It does away with the creation of new waqf through 'waqf by user'.
  3. It introduces, for the very first time in Indian law, the appointment of Survey Commissioners to survey waqf properties.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. Under the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, an inquiry into whether a property claimed as waqf is in fact government property is to be conducted by an officer of which one of the following ranks?

  • A. An officer above the rank of Collector, designated by the State Government
  • B. The Survey Commissioner of Waqf
  • C. The Chief Executive Officer of the State Waqf Board
  • D. The Presiding Officer of the Waqf Tribunal

Q10. The Survey Module and the Waqf Property Lease Module were launched on the UMEED Central Portal in January 2026 under the authority of which one of the following?

  • A. Secretary, Ministry of Minority Affairs
  • B. Union Minister of Minority Affairs
  • C. Chairperson of the Central Waqf Council
  • D. Chief Executive Officer of a State Waqf Board

Q11. With reference to modules on the UMEED Central Portal, consider the following module–function pairings: 1. Survey Module — a digital framework for capturing, managing and updating information on the survey of waqf properties. 2. Waqf Property Lease Module — recording lease information such as lease period and lease amount of waqf properties. 3. Accounts & Audit Module — strengthening the financial governance of waqf institutions. 4. Haj Suvidha Module — online allotment of Haj pilgrimage quotas to applicants. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Survey Module — a digital framework for capturing, managing and updating information on the survey of waqf properties.
  2. Waqf Property Lease Module — recording lease information such as lease period and lease amount of waqf properties.
  3. Accounts & Audit Module — strengthening the financial governance of waqf institutions.
  4. Haj Suvidha Module — online allotment of Haj pilgrimage quotas to applicants.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q12. The UMEED Central Portal for real-time uploading, verification and monitoring of waqf properties is developed and operationalised by which one of the following ministries?

  • A. Ministry of Minority Affairs
  • B. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • C. Ministry of Culture
  • D. Ministry of Law and Justice

Q13. The acronym 'UMEED', as used in the UMEED Central Portal for waqf properties, stands for which one of the following?

  • A. Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development
  • B. Universal Minority Endowment, Education and Development
  • C. Unified Muslim Endowment and Estate Digitisation
  • D. Unified Management of Endowments, Enterprises and Donations

Q14. While staying the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026, the Supreme Court directed that the 2012 Equity Regulations would continue to apply until further orders. This direction was issued in exercise of the Court's powers under which one of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

  • A. Article 32
  • B. Article 136
  • C. Article 142
  • D. Article 226

Q15. The Supreme Court Bench that on 29 January 2026 stayed the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026 consisted of how many judges?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Five
  • D. Seven

Q16. The India-AI Impact Summit 2026, held at Bharat Mandapam, was organised by which one of the following Union ministries?

  • A. Ministry of Science and Technology
  • B. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • C. NITI Aayog
  • D. Ministry of Education

Q17. At the Union level, the Trade Unions Act, 1926 and the consolidated Labour Codes (2019–2020) governing the rights of trade unions whose protests followed the Supreme Court's January 2026 observation are administered by which one of the following?

  • A. Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • B. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
  • C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D. Ministry of Home Affairs

Q18. With reference to how the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 differs from the Trade Unions Act, 1926 (which it subsumes), consider the following statements: 1. While the 1926 Act was enacted in the colonial period, the 2020 Code is part of the post-2019 consolidation of central labour laws. 2. The 2020 Code introduces the concept of a 'negotiating union' or 'negotiating council' for collective bargaining, which was absent in the 1926 Act. 3. Unlike the 1926 Act, the 2020 Code withdraws the protection of the right to form associations or unions guaranteed under Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. While the 1926 Act was enacted in the colonial period, the 2020 Code is part of the post-2019 consolidation of central labour laws.
  2. The 2020 Code introduces the concept of a 'negotiating union' or 'negotiating council' for collective bargaining, which was absent in the 1926 Act.
  3. Unlike the 1926 Act, the 2020 Code withdraws the protection of the right to form associations or unions guaranteed under Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q19. With reference to the constitutional and statutory framework underlying the trade unions' response to the Supreme Court's January 2026 observation on industrial stagnation, consider the following statements: 1. Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution guarantees the right to form associations or unions as a Fundamental Right. 2. Reasonable restrictions on this right can be imposed by the State under Article 19(4). 3. The Trade Unions Act, 1926 provides legal immunity to registered trade union office-bearers for bonafide trade-union activities. 4. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 places an absolute and permanent prohibition on strikes in all private-sector industries. Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

  1. Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution guarantees the right to form associations or unions as a Fundamental Right.
  2. Reasonable restrictions on this right can be imposed by the State under Article 19(4).
  3. The Trade Unions Act, 1926 provides legal immunity to registered trade union office-bearers for bonafide trade-union activities.
  4. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 places an absolute and permanent prohibition on strikes in all private-sector industries.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q20. The Government of India between 2019 and 2020 consolidated 29 central labour laws — including the Trade Unions Act, 1926 — into how many Labour Codes?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five

Q21. With reference to the Public Interest Litigation disposed of by the Supreme Court in January 2026 that triggered protests by central trade unions, consider the following statements: 1. The PIL was filed by an industry association representing manufacturing employers. 2. The Bench held that fixing minimum wages for domestic workers falls within the policy domain of the executive and the legislatures. 3. The Bench orally observed that trade unionism was responsible for stalling industrial growth in the country. 4. The PIL had specifically sought statutory recognition of minimum wages for domestic workers. Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. The PIL was filed by an industry association representing manufacturing employers.
  2. The Bench held that fixing minimum wages for domestic workers falls within the policy domain of the executive and the legislatures.
  3. The Bench orally observed that trade unionism was responsible for stalling industrial growth in the country.
  4. The PIL had specifically sought statutory recognition of minimum wages for domestic workers.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 2 and 4 only
  • D. 3 and 4 only

Q22. Comparing the National Guidelines for Stem Cell Research, 2017 with the Supreme Court's 2026 judgment in Yash Charitable Trust v. Union of India, consider the following statements: 1. The 2017 Guidelines had permitted stem cell therapy as a routine clinical service for Autism Spectrum Disorder, a position now overturned by the 2026 judgment. 2. While the 2017 Guidelines lacked binding statutory force, the 2026 judgment directs the constitution of a dedicated national regulatory authority for stem cell oversight. 3. Both the 2017 Guidelines and the 2026 judgment treat the use of stem cell therapy outside an approved and monitored clinical trial — for indications other than recognised standard-care exceptions — as impermissible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The 2017 Guidelines had permitted stem cell therapy as a routine clinical service for Autism Spectrum Disorder, a position now overturned by the 2026 judgment.
  2. While the 2017 Guidelines lacked binding statutory force, the 2026 judgment directs the constitution of a dedicated national regulatory authority for stem cell oversight.
  3. Both the 2017 Guidelines and the 2026 judgment treat the use of stem cell therapy outside an approved and monitored clinical trial — for indications other than recognised standard-care exceptions — as impermissible.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q23. Following the Supreme Court's 2026 ruling in Yash Charitable Trust v. Union of India, which one of the following bodies issued the advisory directing medical colleges, institutions and registered medical practitioners to restrict stem cell therapy to the 32 conditions approved on ICMR recommendations?

  • A. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
  • B. Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI)
  • C. Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS)
  • D. National Medical Commission (NMC)

Q24. With reference to the regulation of stem cell therapy in India following the Supreme Court's ruling in Yash Charitable Trust v. Union of India (2026), consider the following statements: 1. Autologous bone marrow transplantation is recognised as standard clinical care under the National Guidelines for Stem Cell Research, 2017. 2. Epithelial therapies for corneal surface disorders are recognised as standard clinical care under the same guidelines. 3. Stem cell therapy for Autism Spectrum Disorder is among the indications approved by the Indian Council of Medical Research as standard care. 4. Apart from recognised standard-care indications, any other use of stem cells in patients is treated as investigational and permissible only within an approved and monitored clinical trial. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Autologous bone marrow transplantation is recognised as standard clinical care under the National Guidelines for Stem Cell Research, 2017.
  2. Epithelial therapies for corneal surface disorders are recognised as standard clinical care under the same guidelines.
  3. Stem cell therapy for Autism Spectrum Disorder is among the indications approved by the Indian Council of Medical Research as standard care.
  4. Apart from recognised standard-care indications, any other use of stem cells in patients is treated as investigational and permissible only within an approved and monitored clinical trial.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q25. The UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026 were notified by a statutory body functioning under which one of the following?

  • A. Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education
  • B. Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education
  • C. Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • D. Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Q26. With reference to the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026, which of the following categories are mandatorily required to have representation on the Equity Committee of a higher education institution? 1. Scheduled Castes 2. Scheduled Tribes 3. Persons with Disabilities 4. Religious minorities Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Scheduled Castes
  2. Scheduled Tribes
  3. Persons with Disabilities
  4. Religious minorities
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q27. Under the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026, within how many working days is the Equity Committee of a higher education institution required to dispose of a standard (non-severe) discrimination complaint?

  • A. 7 working days
  • B. 15 working days
  • C. 30 working days
  • D. 45 working days

Q28. With reference to the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026 as compared with the UGC Promotion of Equity in Higher Educational Institutions Regulations, 2012, consider the following statements: 1. The 2012 framework operated as advisory guidelines, whereas the 2026 Regulations were notified as legally enforceable mandates through the Gazette of India. 2. Unlike the 2012 framework, the 2026 Regulations omitted ragging from their scope of covered conduct. 3. While the 2012 Regulations applied only to central universities, the 2026 Regulations for the first time extended coverage to all higher education institutions including private universities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The 2012 framework operated as advisory guidelines, whereas the 2026 Regulations were notified as legally enforceable mandates through the Gazette of India.
  2. Unlike the 2012 framework, the 2026 Regulations omitted ragging from their scope of covered conduct.
  3. While the 2012 Regulations applied only to central universities, the 2026 Regulations for the first time extended coverage to all higher education institutions including private universities.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q29. In the context of the University Grants Commission (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026, what is the 'Equal Opportunity Centre (EOC)'?

  • A. An external appellate body constituted by the UGC to hear appeals against decisions of an institution's Equity Committee
  • B. The mandatory nodal body within every higher education institution responsible for implementing equity policies and handling discrimination grievances
  • C. A standing committee of Parliament that audits anti-discrimination compliance of central universities
  • D. A judicial tribunal under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to adjudicate caste-discrimination complaints in HEIs

Q30. Which constitutional provision was identified as the primary basis by the Supreme Court in its January 2026 ruling that menstrual health in schools is a fundamental right?

  • A. Article 14 – Right to Equality
  • B. Article 19 – Right to Freedom
  • C. Article 21 – Right to Life and Personal Liberty
  • D. Article 21A – Right to Education