Polity MCQs for UPSC Prelims — February 2026

Q1. As per the Supreme Court Collegium resolution of 26 February 2026, how many months in advance of the post falling vacant is a judge proposed to be appointed as Chief Justice of a High Court preferably to be transferred to that High Court?

• A. One month
• B. Two months
• C. Three months
• D. Six months

Q2. Under which Article of the Constitution of India does the President effect the transfer of a High Court judge, as relied upon by the Supreme Court Collegium while operationalising its 2026 advance transfer policy for prospective Chief Justices?

• A. Article 217
• B. Article 222
• C. Article 223
• D. Article 224

Q3. In the context of the Supreme Court Collegium's February 2026 resolution, the term 'advance transfer policy' for prospective Chief Justices of High Courts most precisely refers to:

• A. A policy under which a judge designated to take over as Chief Justice of a High Court is transferred to that High Court preferably two months before the post falls vacant, so as to be conversant with its functioning before assuming office.
• B. A policy under which a sitting Chief Justice of a High Court is given two months' advance notice of his/her transfer to another High Court before such transfer takes effect.
• C. A policy under which a senior-most judge of a High Court is automatically elevated as its Chief Justice two months before the incumbent's retirement, without inter-State transfer.
• D. A policy under which the Union Government must communicate its objections, if any, to the Collegium's transfer recommendation within two months, failing which the transfer is deemed approved.

Q4. Who headed the Supreme Court Collegium that adopted, in February 2026, the policy mandating advance transfer of judges designated as future Chief Justices of High Courts?

• A. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
• B. Justice Sanjiv Khanna
• C. Justice B.R. Gavai
• D. Justice Surya Kant

Q5. The Central Electricity Authority (CEA), which has flagged the rising risk of grid oscillations from variable renewable energy integration, derives its present statutory status from which one of the following enactments?

• A. Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948
• B. Electricity Regulatory Commissions Act, 1998
• C. Energy Conservation Act, 2001
• D. Electricity Act, 2003

Q6. With reference to the PIL filed against the SHANTI Act, 2025, consider the following provisions of the Constitution of India that the petition alleges are violated by the Act: 1. Article 14 2. Article 19 3. Article 21 4. Article 31 Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

1. Article 14
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
4. Article 31

• A. 1, 2 and 3 only
• B. 1 and 4 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q7. The Public Interest Litigation challenging the constitutionality of the SHANTI Act, 2025 was heard in February 2026 by a Supreme Court Bench headed by which one of the following?

• A. Chief Justice of India Sanjiv Khanna
• B. Chief Justice of India Surya Kant
• C. Justice B. R. Gavai
• D. Justice Joymalya Bagchi

Q8. With reference to the differences between the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage (CLND) Act, 2010 and the SHANTI Act, 2025, consider the following statements: 1. Whereas the CLND Act, 2010 capped operator liability at a flat ₹1,500 crore for reactors above 10 MW, the SHANTI Act introduces a sliding-scale operator cap rising up to ₹3,000 crore. 2. Section 17(b) of the CLND Act gave operators an automatic statutory right of recourse against suppliers, but under the SHANTI Act such recourse is available only through express contract or proven intentional misconduct. 3. Unlike the CLND Act, the SHANTI Act expressly permits private and foreign entities to build, own and operate nuclear power plants in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Whereas the CLND Act, 2010 capped operator liability at a flat ₹1,500 crore for reactors above 10 MW, the SHANTI Act introduces a sliding-scale operator cap rising up to ₹3,000 crore.
2. Section 17(b) of the CLND Act gave operators an automatic statutory right of recourse against suppliers, but under the SHANTI Act such recourse is available only through express contract or proven intentional misconduct.
3. Unlike the CLND Act, the SHANTI Act expressly permits private and foreign entities to build, own and operate nuclear power plants in India.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 2 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. Which one of the following is the nodal Union ministry for restructuring the Forest Rights Act Cells into 'one-stop' Project Monitoring Units?

• A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
• B. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
• C. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
• D. Ministry of Rural Development

Q10. With reference to the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA), consider the following statements: 1. The total outlay of the Abhiyan is approximately Rs 79,156 crore. 2. It is funded entirely by the Union Government with no matching share from State Governments. 3. The Abhiyan covers around 63,843 villages across 30 States/UTs. 4. The scheme's implementation period extends up to 31 March 2034. Which of the statements given above are NOT correct?

1. The total outlay of the Abhiyan is approximately Rs 79,156 crore.
2. It is funded entirely by the Union Government with no matching share from State Governments.
3. The Abhiyan covers around 63,843 villages across 30 States/UTs.
4. The scheme's implementation period extends up to 31 March 2034.

• A. 1 and 3
• B. 2 and 4
• C. 1, 2 and 4
• D. 3 and 4 only

Q11. The Forest Rights Cells, currently being restructured into Project Monitoring Units by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, are mandated to support the implementation of which one of the following statutes?

• A. The Indian Forest Act, 1927
• B. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
• C. The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
• D. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006

Q12. With reference to the recent move by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs to convert FRA Cells into 'one-stop' Project Monitoring Units (PMUs), consider the following statements: 1. The earlier FRA Cells were financed under the DAJGUA programme for a period of two years at the State and district/sub-divisional levels. 2. Under the new arrangement, PMUs will replace the Gram Sabha as the primary authority to receive and verify forest rights claims. 3. The shift to PMUs was prompted by concerns that dedicated FRA-only cells were increasing administrative costs and creating fragmented communication with States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The earlier FRA Cells were financed under the DAJGUA programme for a period of two years at the State and district/sub-divisional levels.
2. Under the new arrangement, PMUs will replace the Gram Sabha as the primary authority to receive and verify forest rights claims.
3. The shift to PMUs was prompted by concerns that dedicated FRA-only cells were increasing administrative costs and creating fragmented communication with States.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q13. With reference to the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA), under which the Forest Rights Act cells are funded, consider the following statements: 1. It was launched on 2 October 2024 from Hazaribagh, Jharkhand. 2. The Centre and the States share the total outlay of approximately Rs 79,156 crore in a 60:40 ratio. 3. It is implemented through 25 interventions by 17 line ministries of the Union Government. 4. Its implementation period extends up to 31 March 2029. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. It was launched on 2 October 2024 from Hazaribagh, Jharkhand.
2. The Centre and the States share the total outlay of approximately Rs 79,156 crore in a 60:40 ratio.
3. It is implemented through 25 interventions by 17 line ministries of the Union Government.
4. Its implementation period extends up to 31 March 2029.

• A. 1, 3 and 4 only
• B. 2 and 4 only
• C. 1, 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q14. Which one of the following is the nodal agency that prepared India's first R&D Roadmap to enable Net Zero targets through Carbon Capture, Utilization and Storage (CCUS), launched in December 2025?

• A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
• B. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
• C. Department of Science and Technology, Ministry of Science and Technology
• D. NITI Aayog

Q15. Excluding the Chairperson, how many members are envisaged on the apex Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Commission under the 2025 Bill?

• A. 10
• B. 12
• C. 14
• D. 15

Q16. Under the institutional architecture proposed by the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025, which one of the following is the apex body to which the other three are subordinate?

• A. Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan (the Commission)
• B. Regulatory Council
• C. Accreditation Council
• D. Standards Council

Q17. Under the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025, the 'Standards Council' is best described as the body that:

• A. Disburses grants and maintenance funds to Higher Educational Institutions
• B. Conducts accreditation and quality assessment of Higher Educational Institutions
• C. Specifies minimum academic standards for programmes in Higher Educational Institutions
• D. Acts as the common regulator coordinating the functioning of Higher Educational Institutions

Q18. The 31-member Joint Parliamentary Committee constituted to examine the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 is chaired by which one of the following parliamentarians?

• A. Jagdambika Pal
• B. Bhartruhari Mahtab
• C. Daggubati Purandeswari
• D. P. P. Chaudhary

Q19. The Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025, which seeks to replace the UGC, AICTE and NCTE, was introduced in the Lok Sabha by which one of the following Union Ministries?

• A. Ministry of Human Resource Development
• B. Ministry of Education
• C. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
• D. Ministry of Science and Technology

Q20. With reference to the Delhi High Court's February 2026 order in the Swami Ramdev personality-rights case, consider the following platforms named as defendants: 1. Google 2. Meta 3. X Corp. 4. Amazon Which of the above is/are correctly identified as named respondents in the suit?

1. Google
2. Meta
3. X Corp.
4. Amazon

• A. 1 and 3 only
• B. 2 and 4 only
• C. 1, 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q21. Which one of the following is correctly identified as India's first judicial order to expressly extend personality-rights protection to AI-generated deepfakes — the precedent on which the 2026 Ramdev order is built?

• A. Shivaji Rao Gaikwad v. Varsha Productions (2015), Madras High Court
• B. ICC Development (Cricket) Ltd. v. Arvee Enterprises (2003), Delhi High Court
• C. Anil Kapoor v. Simply Life India (2023), Delhi High Court
• D. Akshay Kumar personality-rights order (2025), Bombay High Court

Q22. With reference to the personality-rights orders in the Anil Kapoor case (2023), the Akshay Kumar case (2025) and the Swami Ramdev case (2026), consider the following statements: 1. Both the Ramdev (2026) and Anil Kapoor (2023) orders were ex-parte ad interim injunctions of the Delhi High Court. 2. The 2025 personality-rights order in favour of Akshay Kumar was granted by the Delhi High Court. 3. The Ramdev order directed digital platforms to take down the offending content within 72 hours of receiving the order. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Both the Ramdev (2026) and Anil Kapoor (2023) orders were ex-parte ad interim injunctions of the Delhi High Court.
2. The 2025 personality-rights order in favour of Akshay Kumar was granted by the Delhi High Court.
3. The Ramdev order directed digital platforms to take down the offending content within 72 hours of receiving the order.

• A. 1 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q23. The February 2026 ex-parte ad interim injunction protecting Swami Ramdev's personality rights against AI-generated deepfakes was passed by which one of the following?

• A. A Single Judge Bench of the Delhi High Court
• B. A Division Bench of the Bombay High Court
• C. A Single Judge Bench of the Madras High Court
• D. A Division Bench of the Supreme Court of India

Q24. The Supreme Court Bench that on 25 February 2026 stayed the criminal proceedings against Jharkhand Chief Minister Hemant Soren in the ED summons-defiance case was headed by which one of the following?

• A. Chief Justice of India Surya Kant
• B. Justice Joymalya Bagchi
• C. Justice Vipul M. Pancholi
• D. Justice B. R. Gavai

Q25. While staying the proceedings against the Jharkhand Chief Minister in February 2026, the Supreme Court described the ED's prosecution as 'in terrorem'. In legal usage, the expression 'in terrorem' most accurately refers to:

• A. A proceeding initiated principally to intimidate or coerce, rather than to obtain a bona fide legal remedy.
• B. A summary proceeding that may be conducted ex parte where the accused is absconding from jurisdiction.
• C. A proceeding instituted in the public interest by a state agency on behalf of an unidentified victim.
• D. A criminal proceeding that, by statute, must be tried by a special court within a fixed time-frame.

Q26. Under which one of the following provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 does the Enforcement Directorate derive the specific power to summon a person — the alleged disobedience of which led to the criminal proceedings recently stayed by the Supreme Court against the Jharkhand Chief Minister?

• A. Section 17 of the PMLA, 2002
• B. Section 19 of the PMLA, 2002
• C. Section 50 of the PMLA, 2002
• D. Section 63 of the PMLA, 2002

Q27. In the context of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, which was invoked against the Jharkhand Chief Minister, consider the following powers/consequences: 1. Power of ED officers to summon any person to give evidence or produce documents. 2. Deeming of such summons proceedings as 'judicial proceedings' within the meaning of Sections 193 and 228 of the IPC. 3. Power of an ED officer to arrest a person without prior judicial warrant under the same provision that authorises the summons. 4. Liability of a person wilfully disobeying a summons to be proceeded against under Section 174 of the IPC. Which of the above is/are NOT correctly attributable to Section 50 of the PMLA, 2002?

1. Power of ED officers to summon any person to give evidence or produce documents.
2. Deeming of such summons proceedings as 'judicial proceedings' within the meaning of Sections 193 and 228 of the IPC.
3. Power of an ED officer to arrest a person without prior judicial warrant under the same provision that authorises the summons.
4. Liability of a person wilfully disobeying a summons to be proceeded against under Section 174 of the IPC.

• A. 3 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 3 and 4 only
• D. 2 and 4 only

Q28. With reference to the recent judicial proceedings against the Chief Minister of Jharkhand in the ED summons-defiance case, consider the following statements: 1. In January 2026, the Jharkhand High Court refused to quash the cognisance taken by the Special MP-MLA Court against him in the ED complaint case. 2. In February 2026, a Supreme Court Bench led by the Chief Justice of India stayed the criminal proceedings and issued notice to the Enforcement Directorate. 3. The Jharkhand High Court, while declining to quash the cognisance, characterised the ED's prosecution as 'in terrorem', a phrase later disapproved by the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. In January 2026, the Jharkhand High Court refused to quash the cognisance taken by the Special MP-MLA Court against him in the ED complaint case.
2. In February 2026, a Supreme Court Bench led by the Chief Justice of India stayed the criminal proceedings and issued notice to the Enforcement Directorate.
3. The Jharkhand High Court, while declining to quash the cognisance, characterised the ED's prosecution as 'in terrorem', a phrase later disapproved by the Supreme Court.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q29. The Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025 received the assent of the President of India in which month and year?

• A. November 2025
• B. December 2025
• C. January 2026
• D. February 2026

Q30. With reference to the Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Act, 2025, consider the following statements: Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. It increases the statutory wage-employment guarantee from 100 days to 125 days per rural household per financial year.
2. The Centre-State fund-sharing pattern is 60:40 for general States and 90:10 for North-eastern and Himalayan States.
3. It raises the ceiling on administrative expenditure from 6 per cent to 9 per cent of programme funds.
4. It is administered by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 3 only
• C. 4 only
• D. 2 and 3 only