Polity MCQs for UPSC Prelims — February 2026
Q1. As per the Supreme Court Collegium resolution of 26 February 2026, how many months in advance of the post falling vacant is a judge proposed to be appointed as Chief Justice of a High Court preferably to be transferred to that High Court?
- A. One month
- B. Two months
- C. Three months
- D. Six months
Q2. Under which Article of the Constitution of India does the President effect the transfer of a High Court judge, as relied upon by the Supreme Court Collegium while operationalising its 2026 advance transfer policy for prospective Chief Justices?
- A. Article 217
- B. Article 222
- C. Article 223
- D. Article 224
Q3. In the context of the Supreme Court Collegium's February 2026 resolution, the term 'advance transfer policy' for prospective Chief Justices of High Courts most precisely refers to:
- A. A policy under which a judge designated to take over as Chief Justice of a High Court is transferred to that High Court preferably two months before the post falls vacant, so as to be conversant with its functioning before assuming office.
- B. A policy under which a sitting Chief Justice of a High Court is given two months' advance notice of his/her transfer to another High Court before such transfer takes effect.
- C. A policy under which a senior-most judge of a High Court is automatically elevated as its Chief Justice two months before the incumbent's retirement, without inter-State transfer.
- D. A policy under which the Union Government must communicate its objections, if any, to the Collegium's transfer recommendation within two months, failing which the transfer is deemed approved.
Q4. Who headed the Supreme Court Collegium that adopted, in February 2026, the policy mandating advance transfer of judges designated as future Chief Justices of High Courts?
- A. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
- B. Justice Sanjiv Khanna
- C. Justice B.R. Gavai
- D. Justice Surya Kant
Q5. The Central Electricity Authority (CEA), which has flagged the rising risk of grid oscillations from variable renewable energy integration, derives its present statutory status from which one of the following enactments?
- A. Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948
- B. Electricity Regulatory Commissions Act, 1998
- C. Energy Conservation Act, 2001
- D. Electricity Act, 2003
Q6. With reference to the PIL filed against the SHANTI Act, 2025, consider the following provisions of the Constitution of India that the petition alleges are violated by the Act:
1. Article 14
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
4. Article 31
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- Article 14
- Article 19
- Article 21
- Article 31
- A. 1, 2 and 3 only
- B. 1 and 4 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q7. The Public Interest Litigation challenging the constitutionality of the SHANTI Act, 2025 was heard in February 2026 by a Supreme Court Bench headed by which one of the following?
- A. Chief Justice of India Sanjiv Khanna
- B. Chief Justice of India Surya Kant
- C. Justice B. R. Gavai
- D. Justice Joymalya Bagchi
Q8. With reference to the differences between the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage (CLND) Act, 2010 and the SHANTI Act, 2025, consider the following statements:
1. Whereas the CLND Act, 2010 capped operator liability at a flat ₹1,500 crore for reactors above 10 MW, the SHANTI Act introduces a sliding-scale operator cap rising up to ₹3,000 crore.
2. Section 17(b) of the CLND Act gave operators an automatic statutory right of recourse against suppliers, but under the SHANTI Act such recourse is available only through express contract or proven intentional misconduct.
3. Unlike the CLND Act, the SHANTI Act expressly permits private and foreign entities to build, own and operate nuclear power plants in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Whereas the CLND Act, 2010 capped operator liability at a flat ₹1,500 crore for reactors above 10 MW, the SHANTI Act introduces a sliding-scale operator cap rising up to ₹3,000 crore.
- Section 17(b) of the CLND Act gave operators an automatic statutory right of recourse against suppliers, but under the SHANTI Act such recourse is available only through express contract or proven intentional misconduct.
- Unlike the CLND Act, the SHANTI Act expressly permits private and foreign entities to build, own and operate nuclear power plants in India.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q9. Which one of the following is the nodal Union ministry for restructuring the Forest Rights Act Cells into 'one-stop' Project Monitoring Units?
- A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
- C. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
- D. Ministry of Rural Development
Q10. With reference to the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA), consider the following statements:
1. The total outlay of the Abhiyan is approximately Rs 79,156 crore.
2. It is funded entirely by the Union Government with no matching share from State Governments.
3. The Abhiyan covers around 63,843 villages across 30 States/UTs.
4. The scheme's implementation period extends up to 31 March 2034.
Which of the statements given above are NOT correct?
- The total outlay of the Abhiyan is approximately Rs 79,156 crore.
- It is funded entirely by the Union Government with no matching share from State Governments.
- The Abhiyan covers around 63,843 villages across 30 States/UTs.
- The scheme's implementation period extends up to 31 March 2034.
- A. 1 and 3
- B. 2 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 4
- D. 3 and 4 only
Q11. The Forest Rights Cells, currently being restructured into Project Monitoring Units by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, are mandated to support the implementation of which one of the following statutes?
- A. The Indian Forest Act, 1927
- B. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
- C. The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
- D. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
Q12. With reference to the recent move by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs to convert FRA Cells into 'one-stop' Project Monitoring Units (PMUs), consider the following statements:
1. The earlier FRA Cells were financed under the DAJGUA programme for a period of two years at the State and district/sub-divisional levels.
2. Under the new arrangement, PMUs will replace the Gram Sabha as the primary authority to receive and verify forest rights claims.
3. The shift to PMUs was prompted by concerns that dedicated FRA-only cells were increasing administrative costs and creating fragmented communication with States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The earlier FRA Cells were financed under the DAJGUA programme for a period of two years at the State and district/sub-divisional levels.
- Under the new arrangement, PMUs will replace the Gram Sabha as the primary authority to receive and verify forest rights claims.
- The shift to PMUs was prompted by concerns that dedicated FRA-only cells were increasing administrative costs and creating fragmented communication with States.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q13. With reference to the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA), under which the Forest Rights Act cells are funded, consider the following statements:
1. It was launched on 2 October 2024 from Hazaribagh, Jharkhand.
2. The Centre and the States share the total outlay of approximately Rs 79,156 crore in a 60:40 ratio.
3. It is implemented through 25 interventions by 17 line ministries of the Union Government.
4. Its implementation period extends up to 31 March 2029.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- It was launched on 2 October 2024 from Hazaribagh, Jharkhand.
- The Centre and the States share the total outlay of approximately Rs 79,156 crore in a 60:40 ratio.
- It is implemented through 25 interventions by 17 line ministries of the Union Government.
- Its implementation period extends up to 31 March 2029.
- A. 1, 3 and 4 only
- B. 2 and 4 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q14. The form in which the accounts of the Union and of the States are to be kept is prescribed by the President on the advice of the Comptroller and Auditor General. This requirement is contained in which Article of the Constitution?
- A. Article 148
- B. Article 149
- C. Article 150
- D. Article 151
Q15. The percentage share of States in the net proceeds of the divisible pool of central taxes, on the basis of which ₹11,39,767 crore was devolved up to January 2026, is recommended by which one of the following?
- A. The Finance Commission constituted under Article 280
- B. The GST Council under Article 279A
- C. NITI Aayog
- D. The Inter-State Council under Article 263
Q16. In the Union Government's monthly accounts, the head 'Tax Revenue (Net to Centre)' is arrived at after transferring the States' share of the divisible pool of central taxes. This distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States is provided for under which Article of the Constitution?
- A. Article 270
- B. Article 275
- C. Article 280
- D. Article 246
Q17. Which one of the following is the statutory authority that lays down the standards for food fortification and owns the '+F' logo used on fortified foods in India?
- A. Food Corporation of India (FCI)
- B. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
- C. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
- D. Department of Food and Public Distribution (DFPD)
Q18. Constitutional challenges to punitive 'bulldozer' demolitions have rested on certain fundamental and constitutional provisions. Consider the following identifications:
1. Article 14 — equality before law and protection against arbitrary state action
2. Article 21 — right to life, livelihood and shelter
3. Article 300A — right to property
4. Article 25 — protection against arbitrary demolition of property
Which of the above is/are NOT correctly identified?
- Article 14 — equality before law and protection against arbitrary state action
- Article 21 — right to life, livelihood and shelter
- Article 300A — right to property
- Article 25 — protection against arbitrary demolition of property
- A. 1 and 3
- B. 2 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 4
- D. 4 only
Q19. In its February 2026 order on punitive demolitions in Uttar Pradesh, how many questions did the Allahabad High Court frame for examination?
- A. Three
- B. Four
- C. Five
- D. Seven
Q20. With reference to the Supreme Court's November 2024 demolition guidelines and the Allahabad High Court's February 2026 proceedings on 'bulldozer justice', consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court's November 2024 guidelines were issued under Article 142 and apply across the country.
2. The Allahabad High Court's February 2026 proceedings arose from a petition concerning property in Hamirpur district.
3. The Allahabad High Court in 2026 held that punitive demolitions are permissible if carried out within 15 days of FIR registration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The Supreme Court's November 2024 guidelines were issued under Article 142 and apply across the country.
- The Allahabad High Court's February 2026 proceedings arose from a petition concerning property in Hamirpur district.
- The Allahabad High Court in 2026 held that punitive demolitions are permissible if carried out within 15 days of FIR registration.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1 and 3 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q21. Under which single constitutional provision did the Supreme Court invoke its plenary power to issue the pan-India guidelines against punitive demolitions?
- A. Article 142
- B. Article 32
- C. Article 141
- D. Article 144
Q22. In February 2026, which constitutional court framed five questions examining whether punitive demolitions carried out immediately after FIR registration in Uttar Pradesh violate due process?
- A. Rajasthan High Court
- B. Madhya Pradesh High Court
- C. Allahabad High Court
- D. Punjab and Haryana High Court
Q23. In the context of Jaideep Sengar's plea before the Delhi High Court, the term 'suspension of sentence' most precisely refers to which one of the following?
- A. An order keeping the execution of the sentence in abeyance, typically pending the hearing of an appeal, without disturbing the conviction itself
- B. The setting aside of both the conviction and the sentence by an appellate court
- C. The reduction of the quantum of punishment by an appellate court
- D. The exercise of the constitutional power of the Governor to pardon a convict
Q24. In February 2026, the Delhi High Court directed that the medical board to assess Jaideep Sengar's claimed Stage-IV oral cancer be constituted exclusively by which one of the following institutions?
- A. All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi
- B. Safdarjung Hospital, New Delhi
- C. Ram Manohar Lohia (RML) Hospital, New Delhi
- D. Lok Nayak Jai Prakash (LNJP) Hospital, New Delhi
Q25. The Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), the agency that investigated the Unnao cases, is appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of a committee chaired by which one of the following?
- A. The Prime Minister
- B. The Chief Justice of India
- C. The President of India
- D. The Union Home Minister
Q26. The Supreme Court bench that declined to entertain the pleas against the Assam Chief Minister and directed the petitioners to approach the Gauhati High Court (February 2026) was headed by which Chief Justice of India?
- A. Surya Kant
- B. Ashutosh Kumar
- C. Joymalya Bagchi
- D. Vipul M Pancholi
Q27. In the January 2026 public speech that is challenged in the petitions, the Assam Chief Minister claimed that approximately how many 'Miya' voters would be removed from the electoral rolls?
- A. 4 to 5 lakh
- B. 19 lakh
- C. 40 to 50 lakh
- D. 1.9 lakh
Q28. In the context of the 2026 Gauhati High Court hate-speech case, the disputed term 'Miya' is best described as which one of the following?
- A. A pejorative term used for Bengali-origin/Bengali-speaking Muslims in Assam
- B. A statutory category of 'declared foreigners' under the Foreigners Tribunals
- C. An indigenous Assamese tribal community listed in the Sixth Schedule
- D. A formal classification of persons excluded from the National Register of Citizens
Q29. With reference to the 2026 petitions before the Gauhati High Court against the Assam Chief Minister, consider the following persons. Which of the above are correctly identified as petitioners in the matter?
- Hiren Gohain
- Harekrishna Deka
- Paresh Chandra Malakar
- Himanta Biswa Sarma
- A. 1, 2 and 3
- B. 1 and 4 only
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q30. The Gauhati High Court Division Bench that issued notice to the Assam Chief Minister over the alleged 'hate speech' petitions (2026) was headed by which one of the following as Chief Justice of the High Court?
- A. Ashutosh Kumar
- B. Arun Dev Choudhury
- C. Surya Kant
- D. Joymalya Bagchi