Polity MCQs for UPSC Prelims — July 2026
Q1. The offshore exploration mission announced by the Prime Minister in his 79th Independence Day address has been operationalised as a Central Sector Scheme by which one of the following ministries?
- A. The Ministry of Earth Sciences, which runs India's ocean survey and exploration programmes
- B. The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, which handles maritime and Blue Economy affairs
- C. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, which handles offshore energy generation projects
- D. The Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
Q2. Samudra Manthan has been classified as a 'Central Sector Scheme'. In Indian budgetary practice, which one of the following describes such a scheme?
- A. It is financed wholly by the Union Government and executed by a Union ministry or its agencies
- B. It is financed wholly by the Union Government but must necessarily be executed by all State Governments
- C. It is financed jointly by the Centre and the States, the State share being invariably 40 per cent in every case
- D. It is financed wholly by the States and executed by the Union Government through its central agencies
Q3. The Rs. 84,084 crore outlay for the National Offshore Exploration Scheme received its final sanction from which one of the following?
- A. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister
- B. The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister
- C. The Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth chaired by the Prime Minister
- D. The Public Investment Board under the Department of Expenditure
Q4. The offshore exploration mission announced by the Prime Minister in his 79th Independence Day address has been operationalised as a Central Sector Scheme by which one of the following ministries?
- A. The Ministry of Earth Sciences, which runs India's ocean survey and exploration programmes
- B. The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, which handles maritime and Blue Economy affairs
- C. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, which handles offshore energy generation projects
- D. The Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
Q5. Samudra Manthan has been classified as a 'Central Sector Scheme'. In Indian budgetary practice, which one of the following describes such a scheme?
- A. It is financed wholly by the Union Government and executed by a Union ministry or its agencies
- B. It is financed wholly by the Union Government but must necessarily be executed by all State Governments
- C. It is financed jointly by the Centre and the States, the State share being invariably 40 per cent in every case
- D. It is financed wholly by the States and executed by the Union Government through its central agencies
Q6. The Rs. 84,084 crore outlay for the National Offshore Exploration Scheme received its final sanction from which one of the following?
- A. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister
- B. The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister
- C. The Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth chaired by the Prime Minister
- D. The Public Investment Board under the Department of Expenditure
Q7. At the first special meeting of the Cabinet Committee on Security convened in March 2026 on the West Asia conflict, the principal institutional direction issued by the Prime Minister was which one of the following?
- A. An immediate and complete halt to all crude oil cargoes routed through the Strait of Hormuz until hostilities ended
- B. Transfer of the entire strategic petroleum reserve stock to oil marketing companies for unrestricted commercial sale
- C. Creation of a dedicated group of ministers and secretaries to work in a whole-of-government approach on the conflict's fallout
- D. Constitution of a permanent statutory authority vested with exclusive control over all energy imports into India
Q8. With reference to the Group of Ministers (IGoM) set up in 2026 to monitor the West Asia situation and its impact on India, which one of the following is correct?
- A. It is a Cabinet Committee chaired by the Prime Minister, with the Cabinet Secretary as member-convenor and the Ministers of Petroleum & Natural Gas and Power as permanent invitees
- B. It is an informal group of ministers chaired by the Raksha Mantri, which monitors the sectoral impact of the conflict with support from seven Empowered Groups of Secretaries
- C. It is an inter-ministerial group chaired by the Minister of Petroleum & Natural Gas, which reports its recommendations to the National Security Council Secretariat
- D. It is a standing committee of the Union Cabinet chaired by the Minister of External Affairs, with the Chief of Defence Staff as its principal adviser on maritime security
Q9. Which one of the following correctly describes the composition of the Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth?
- A. The Prime Minister, with the Ministers of Defence, Home Affairs, Road Transport & Highways, Finance & Corporate Affairs, and Commerce & Industry
- B. The Minister of Finance & Corporate Affairs as chair, with the Ministers of Commerce & Industry, Corporate Affairs, and Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises
- C. The Prime Minister, with the Ministers of Finance & Corporate Affairs and Commerce & Industry, and the Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog as a member
- D. The Prime Minister, with the Ministers of Home Affairs, Defence, Finance & Corporate Affairs, and External Affairs
Q10. As per the Government's reconstitution of Cabinet Committees, which one of the following Cabinet Committees has only two members?
- A. The Cabinet Committee on Security, which deals with defence and national security matters
- B. The Cabinet Committee on Investment and Growth, which deals with major investment proposals
- C. The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, which deals with the conduct of government business
- D. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, which deals with senior-level appointments
Q11. At the special meetings of the Cabinet Committee on Security convened in 2026 on the West Asia conflict, the detailed presentation on the evolving global situation and on the mitigating measures taken by various ministries and departments was made by which one of the following?
- A. The National Security Adviser, as head of the National Security Council Secretariat
- B. The Cabinet Secretary, as the senior-most civil servant heading the Cabinet Secretariat
- C. The Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister, as head of the Prime Minister's Office
- D. The Foreign Secretary, as the administrative head of the Ministry of External Affairs
Q12. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS)?
- A. A statutory body created under the National Security Council Secretariat, comprising the Prime Minister, the National Security Adviser and the three Service Chiefs
- B. A standing committee of the Union Cabinet chaired by the Minister of Home Affairs, comprising the Ministers of Defence, Finance and External Affairs and the Cabinet Secretary
- C. A Cabinet Committee constituted under the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, comprising the Prime Minister and the Ministers of Home Affairs, Defence, Finance and External Affairs
- D. A permanent inter-ministerial council notified by the Ministry of Defence, comprising the Prime Minister, the Ministers of Defence and Home Affairs and the Chief of Defence Staff
Q13. Consider the following propositions concerning the Supreme Court's May 2026 judgment on State laws regulating online games played for stakes:
1. It upheld the Tamil Nadu Gaming and Police Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021 and the Karnataka Police (Amendment) Act, 2021.
2. It set aside the judgments of the Madras and Karnataka High Courts that had invalidated those State laws.
3. It held that betting and gambling are res extra commercium, so that no fundamental right subsists to carry them on.
4. It held that once monetary stakes are introduced, games of skill stand outside the regulatory reach of the States.
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- It upheld the Tamil Nadu Gaming and Police Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021 and the Karnataka Police (Amendment) Act, 2021.
- It set aside the judgments of the Madras and Karnataka High Courts that had invalidated those State laws.
- It held that betting and gambling are res extra commercium, so that no fundamental right subsists to carry them on.
- It held that once monetary stakes are introduced, games of skill stand outside the regulatory reach of the States.
- A. 1, 2 and 3
- B. 1 and 4
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Q14. Consider the following statements about Supreme Court rulings bearing on lotteries and gambling:
1. In 2015, the Court upheld the Kerala Government's ban on the sale of online lottery tickets as falling within the powers conferred on the State by Section 5 of the Lotteries (Regulation) Act, 1998.
2. In February 2025, the Court held that service tax is not leviable by the Centre on lottery distribution transactions, taxation of this activity falling under Entry 62 of the State List.
3. In May 2023, the Court upheld the Tamil Nadu and Karnataka laws prohibiting online games played for stakes, setting aside the contrary High Court judgments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- In 2015, the Court upheld the Kerala Government's ban on the sale of online lottery tickets as falling within the powers conferred on the State by Section 5 of the Lotteries (Regulation) Act, 1998.
- In February 2025, the Court held that service tax is not leviable by the Centre on lottery distribution transactions, taxation of this activity falling under Entry 62 of the State List.
- In May 2023, the Court upheld the Tamil Nadu and Karnataka laws prohibiting online games played for stakes, setting aside the contrary High Court judgments.
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 2 and 3 only
- C. 1 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q15. States such as Kerala and Tamil Nadu have invoked Section 5 of the Lotteries (Regulation) Act, 1998. The power conferred by that section is best described as the power of a State to:
- A. prohibit within its territory the sale of tickets of lotteries organised by other States
- B. impose a tax within its territory on tickets of lotteries organised by other States
- C. obtain the prior concurrence of the Central Government before organising a lottery of its own
- D. confine the lottery it organises to not more than a single draw in any given week
Q16. Under the Lotteries (Regulation) Act, 1998, the period of the day within which lottery draws may be conducted is to be prescribed by which one of the following?
- A. The State Government organising the lottery
- B. The Central Government exclusively, by rules binding on every State
- C. The Online Gaming Authority of India, for all draws held anywhere in the country
- D. The Ministry of Home Affairs, by directions that no State may vary in any manner
Q17. Under the conditions prescribed in the Lotteries (Regulation) Act, 1998, what is the maximum number of bumper draws that a lottery may have in a calendar year?
- A. Four
- B. Six
- C. Twelve
- D. Twenty-four
Q18. Parliament's competence to enact a law laying down the conditions subject to which State Governments may organise, conduct or promote a lottery is traced principally to which one of the following entries of the Seventh Schedule?
- A. Entry 40 of the Union List
- B. Entry 34 of the State List
- C. Entry 62 of the State List
- D. Entry 26 of the Concurrent List
Q19. Consider the following statements regarding the Tamil Nadu State Raffle scheme as announced at the time of its revival in July 1976:
1. Tickets were to be priced at one rupee each.
2. Draws were to be conducted every month.
3. Agents authorised as on the date of discontinuation of the earlier scheme were to be given the first right to re-register before fresh agents were appointed.
4. The first draw was expected to be held within a fortnight of the announcement.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- Tickets were to be priced at one rupee each.
- Draws were to be conducted every month.
- Agents authorised as on the date of discontinuation of the earlier scheme were to be given the first right to re-register before fresh agents were appointed.
- The first draw was expected to be held within a fortnight of the announcement.
- A. 1 and 2
- B. 2 and 3
- C. 4 only
- D. 3 and 4
Q20. With reference to the history of State-run raffles and lotteries in Tamil Nadu, consider the following year-event pairings:
1. Tamil Nadu State Raffle scheme first introduced — 1968
2. Tamil Nadu State Raffle scheme discontinued — 1975
3. Tamil Nadu Prize Schemes (Prohibition) Act enacted — 1979
4. Tamil Nadu bans the sale of its own as well as other States' lotteries — 1998
Which of the above is/are correctly identified?
- Tamil Nadu State Raffle scheme first introduced — 1968
- Tamil Nadu State Raffle scheme discontinued — 1975
- Tamil Nadu Prize Schemes (Prohibition) Act enacted — 1979
- Tamil Nadu bans the sale of its own as well as other States' lotteries — 1998
- A. 1 and 2 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 3 and 4
Q21. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, which placed education in the Concurrent List, shifted how many subjects in all from the State List to the Concurrent List?
- A. Three subjects
- B. Four subjects
- C. Five subjects
- D. Seven subjects
Q22. Consider the following statements comparing the two main channels of Union transfers to the States:
1. Central taxes devolved to States are untied funds that States may spend at their discretion, whereas grants-in-aid must be applied to specified purposes.
2. For core Centrally Sponsored Schemes the Centre-State sharing ratio is 60:40 for most States but 90:10 for the eight North Eastern States and three Himalayan States.
3. Grants-in-aid have historically formed a larger share of total central transfers to the States than tax devolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- Central taxes devolved to States are untied funds that States may spend at their discretion, whereas grants-in-aid must be applied to specified purposes.
- For core Centrally Sponsored Schemes the Centre-State sharing ratio is 60:40 for most States but 90:10 for the eight North Eastern States and three Himalayan States.
- Grants-in-aid have historically formed a larger share of total central transfers to the States than tax devolution.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q23. Which one of the following best describes a 'Centrally Sponsored Scheme' as distinguished from a 'Central Sector Scheme' in India's public finance?
- A. A scheme met wholly from the Union Budget and executed directly by a central ministry or a central agency
- B. A scheme financed out of grants recommended by the Finance Commission and executed by the State governments
- C. A scheme financed jointly by the Union and the States in a prescribed sharing ratio and executed through State machinery
- D. A scheme financed from the Consolidated Fund of India and executed by district panchayats and municipal bodies
Q24. Which one of the following bodies has the primary responsibility of recommending how the net proceeds of taxes levied by a State should be distributed between that State and its municipalities?
- A. The Finance Commission constituted by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution
- B. The Finance Commission constituted by the Governor under Article 243-Y of the Constitution
- C. The State Election Commission constituted under Article 243-ZA of the Constitution
- D. The District Planning Committee constituted under Article 243-ZD of the Constitution
Q25. Consider the following statements comparing the constitutional provisions for rural and urban local government in India:
1. The Eleventh Schedule lists a larger number of subjects than the Twelfth Schedule, the latter enumerating eighteen functions that State legislatures may devolve to municipalities.
2. Provisions relating to District Planning Committees are contained in the Part of the Constitution dealing with Panchayats, whereas those relating to Metropolitan Planning Committees are contained in the Part dealing with Municipalities.
3. District Planning Committees stand constituted in every State to which the two local-government Parts of the Constitution apply.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The Eleventh Schedule lists a larger number of subjects than the Twelfth Schedule, the latter enumerating eighteen functions that State legislatures may devolve to municipalities.
- Provisions relating to District Planning Committees are contained in the Part of the Constitution dealing with Panchayats, whereas those relating to Metropolitan Planning Committees are contained in the Part dealing with Municipalities.
- District Planning Committees stand constituted in every State to which the two local-government Parts of the Constitution apply.
- A. 1 only
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Q26. Consider the following statements about the Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991 and the litigation over contested religious sites:
1. The Act seeks to preserve the religious character of places of worship as it existed at independence, the Ayodhya Ram Janmabhoomi dispute being expressly excluded from its operation.
2. The survey of the Shahi Idgah complex adjoining the Krishna Janmabhoomi at Mathura was approved in December 2023 by the Supreme Court.
3. In December 2024 the Supreme Court directed that no fresh suits be registered and no survey be ordered by courts in such disputes pending its hearing on the 1991 Act.
4. The scientific survey of the Bhojshala complex was ordered by the National Monuments Authority, and the Supreme Court declined to stay it in April 2024.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- The Act seeks to preserve the religious character of places of worship as it existed at independence, the Ayodhya Ram Janmabhoomi dispute being expressly excluded from its operation.
- The survey of the Shahi Idgah complex adjoining the Krishna Janmabhoomi at Mathura was approved in December 2023 by the Supreme Court.
- In December 2024 the Supreme Court directed that no fresh suits be registered and no survey be ordered by courts in such disputes pending its hearing on the 1991 Act.
- The scientific survey of the Bhojshala complex was ordered by the National Monuments Authority, and the Supreme Court declined to stay it in April 2024.
- A. 1 and 3
- B. 2 and 4
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 4 only
Q27. Consider the following statements about Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India:
1. Article 25(1) makes freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate religion subject to public order, morality and health.
2. Article 26 confers on every religious denomination the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property.
3. Article 26 confers the right to administer denominational property free from any law made by the State.
4. Article 25 extends its guarantee only to citizens of India.
Which of the above is/are NOT correct?
- Article 25(1) makes freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practise and propagate religion subject to public order, morality and health.
- Article 26 confers on every religious denomination the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property.
- Article 26 confers the right to administer denominational property free from any law made by the State.
- Article 25 extends its guarantee only to citizens of India.
- A. 1 and 3
- B. 3 and 4
- C. 2 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 4
Q28. Subject to public order, morality and health, how many distinct rights are enumerated in the clauses of Article 26 of the Constitution of India for every religious denomination or section thereof?
- A. Two
- B. Three
- C. Four
- D. Five
Q29. The institutional mechanism for deciding applications to undertake repair, renovation or construction in the prohibited and regulated areas around centrally protected monuments was created by which one of the following?
- A. The Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1904, as adapted after independence
- B. The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958, as originally enacted
- C. The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2010
- D. The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972, read with the Rules made under it
Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the Archaeological Survey of India and the regime of the AMASR Act, 1958:
1. The ASI was established in 1861 and functions under the Ministry of Culture.
2. An area extending to 100 metres from the protected limit of a centrally protected monument is a prohibited area.
3. An area extending to a further 200 metres beyond the prohibited area is a regulated area.
4. Permission for new construction in a regulated area is granted by the Superintending Archaeologist of the ASI Circle concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- The ASI was established in 1861 and functions under the Ministry of Culture.
- An area extending to 100 metres from the protected limit of a centrally protected monument is a prohibited area.
- An area extending to a further 200 metres beyond the prohibited area is a regulated area.
- Permission for new construction in a regulated area is granted by the Superintending Archaeologist of the ASI Circle concerned.
- A. 1 and 3
- B. 2 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. 1, 3 and 4