Polity MCQs for UPSC Prelims — July 2026

Q1. With reference to reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech under the Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. Security of the State is a ground for reasonable restriction under Article 19(2). 2. 'Public order' was inserted as a ground under Article 19(2) by the First Constitutional Amendment (1951). 3. 'Sedition' is expressly enumerated as a ground under Article 19(2). 4. Sovereignty and integrity of India is a ground under Article 19(2). Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

1. Security of the State is a ground for reasonable restriction under Article 19(2).
2. 'Public order' was inserted as a ground under Article 19(2) by the First Constitutional Amendment (1951).
3. 'Sedition' is expressly enumerated as a ground under Article 19(2).
4. Sovereignty and integrity of India is a ground under Article 19(2).

• A. 1, 2 and 4
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q2. The three new criminal laws — including the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 — which came into force on 1 July 2024, were piloted in Parliament by which Union Ministry?

• A. Ministry of Home Affairs
• B. Ministry of Law and Justice
• C. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
• D. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Q3. Consider the following statements comparing the May 2022 Supreme Court order with the subsequent legislative change: 1. The May 2022 order suspended the operation of Section 124A, whereas the BNS, 2023 removed sedition by replacing the IPC altogether. 2. Under the May 2022 order the Centre stated it was re-examining Section 124A, and the BNS then retained the word 'sedition' in its text. 3. The May 2022 stay was an interim judicial measure, whereas the removal of sedition in 2023 was effected through legislation enacted by Parliament. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. The May 2022 order suspended the operation of Section 124A, whereas the BNS, 2023 removed sedition by replacing the IPC altogether.
2. Under the May 2022 order the Centre stated it was re-examining Section 124A, and the BNS then retained the word 'sedition' in its text.
3. The May 2022 stay was an interim judicial measure, whereas the removal of sedition in 2023 was effected through legislation enacted by Parliament.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. With reference to the Supreme Court's May 2022 interim order on Section 124A, consider the following: 1. The Centre and States were restrained from registering fresh cases for sedition. 2. Pending trials, appeals and proceedings under Section 124A were to be kept in abeyance. 3. The Court declared Section 124A unconstitutional and struck it down. 4. Persons already booked could approach the courts for appropriate relief. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. The Centre and States were restrained from registering fresh cases for sedition.
2. Pending trials, appeals and proceedings under Section 124A were to be kept in abeyance.
3. The Court declared Section 124A unconstitutional and struck it down.
4. Persons already booked could approach the courts for appropriate relief.

• A. 1 and 2
• B. 1, 2 and 4
• C. 2 and 4
• D. 3 only

Q5. Consider the following statements about judicial treatment of sedition: 1. In Balwant Singh v. State of Punjab, raising casual slogans that did not incite public disorder was held not to amount to sedition. 2. In Kedar Nath Singh, the Court read down Section 124A rather than striking it down. 3. The Bench in Kedar Nath Singh comprised three judges. 4. Kedar Nath Singh distinguished disloyalty that excites violence from strong criticism of the government. Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

1. In Balwant Singh v. State of Punjab, raising casual slogans that did not incite public disorder was held not to amount to sedition.
2. In Kedar Nath Singh, the Court read down Section 124A rather than striking it down.
3. The Bench in Kedar Nath Singh comprised three judges.
4. Kedar Nath Singh distinguished disloyalty that excites violence from strong criticism of the government.

• A. 1, 2 and 4
• B. 1 and 3 only
• C. 2, 3 and 4
• D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q6. With reference to Supreme Court jurisprudence on sedition, consider the following statements: 1. Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) upheld the constitutional validity of Section 124A. 2. Kedar Nath Singh was decided by a five-judge Constitution Bench. 3. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down Section 124A as unconstitutional. 4. In Kedar Nath Singh, the offence was confined to acts having a tendency to incite violence or public disorder. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

1. Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) upheld the constitutional validity of Section 124A.
2. Kedar Nath Singh was decided by a five-judge Constitution Bench.
3. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court struck down Section 124A as unconstitutional.
4. In Kedar Nath Singh, the offence was confined to acts having a tendency to incite violence or public disorder.

• A. 1 and 2
• B. 2 and 4
• C. 1, 2 and 4
• D. 3 only

Q7. Under Section 124A IPC, the term 'disaffection' was judicially understood to mean which one of the following?

• A. Disloyalty and all feelings of enmity towards the government established by law
• B. Mere disapproval of specific government measures expressed through lawful means
• C. Any personal criticism directed at an individual minister
• D. Wilful failure to comply with a lawful tax demand

Q8. Under Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, apart from imprisonment for life, what is the maximum term of imprisonment (in years) that may alternatively be imposed?

• A. Three years
• B. Five years
• C. Seven years
• D. Ten years

Q9. The offence of committing 'acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India' — which replaced the erstwhile offence of sedition — is contained in which one of the following?

• A. Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
• B. Section 124A retained as such in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
• C. Section 150 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
• D. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000

Q10. A State such as West Bengal, which is already indebted to the Union, requires the consent of the Central Government to raise a fresh loan under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution?

• A. Article 292
• B. Article 293
• C. Article 280
• D. Article 275

Q11. In the first budget of the BJP government in West Bengal (June 2026), the government announced a drive to fill how many vacant State government posts?

• A. 50,000
• B. 75,000
• C. 1,00,000
• D. 1,50,000

Q12. In the horizontal devolution formula recommended by the Sixteenth Finance Commission (2026-31), which one of the following criteria carries the highest weight?

• A. Population (2011)
• B. Income Distance
• C. Contribution to GDP
• D. Demographic Performance

Q13. The codification of Hindu personal law through the 'Hindu Code Bills', enacted between 1955 and 1956, was carried out through how many separate statutes?

• A. Two
• B. Three
• C. Four
• D. Six

Q14. The consultation paper on 'Reform of Family Law' (2018), which observed that a Uniform Civil Code was 'neither necessary nor desirable at this stage', was released by which numbered Law Commission of India?

• A. 18th Law Commission
• B. 20th Law Commission
• C. 21st Law Commission
• D. 22nd Law Commission

Q15. Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, subjects such as marriage and divorce, on which a Uniform Civil Code would legislate, fall under which one of the following?

• A. Entry 5 of the Concurrent List (List III)
• B. Entry 5 of the State List (List II)
• C. Entry 5 of the Union List (List I)
• D. Entry 26 of the Concurrent List (List III)

Q16. Which one of the following best describes a 'Uniform Civil Code' as sought to be introduced by States such as Uttarakhand and West Bengal?

• A. A common set of laws governing personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance and adoption applicable to all citizens irrespective of religion
• B. A code that applies exclusively to civil servants of the Union and the States in service matters
• C. A uniform code of criminal procedure applicable across all States
• D. A code governing only civil disputes such as contracts and torts, applied uniformly across religions

Q17. The panel to examine West Bengal's draft Uniform Civil Code Bill in 2026 was constituted by which one of the following authorities?

• A. The West Bengal Cabinet (Council of Ministers)
• B. The Governor of West Bengal
• C. The Calcutta High Court
• D. The Union Ministry of Law and Justice

Q18. The committee constituted by the West Bengal Cabinet in 2026 to scrutinise the State's draft Uniform Civil Code Bill is headed by which one of the following?

• A. Justice (Retd.) Ranjana Prakash Desai
• B. Justice (Retd.) B. S. Chauhan
• C. Justice (Retd.) Rohinton Fali Nariman
• D. Justice (Retd.) A. K. Sikri

Q19. Which one of the following was the first State in India to enact its own Uniform Civil Code legislation after Independence?

• A. Uttarakhand
• B. Gujarat
• C. Goa
• D. Assam

Q20. The Uniform Civil Code is provided for in the Constitution of India under which one of the following?

• A. Article 44, Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy
• B. Article 25, Part III – Fundamental Rights
• C. Article 39A, Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy
• D. Article 51A, Part IVA – Fundamental Duties

Q21. At the July 2026 PAC hearing, the Education Secretary's principal argument for keeping the CBSE Chairperson outside the Committee's questioning rested on which one of the following claims?

• A. That CBSE does not receive direct grants from the Union government
• B. That CBSE is a constitutional body immune from committee scrutiny
• C. That CBSE is accountable only to the Supreme Court
• D. That CBSE is a body wholly controlled by the State governments

Q22. The Public Accounts Committee's scrutiny of how public money has been spent is primarily based on which one of the following?

• A. The audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General laid before Parliament
• B. The budget estimates presented by ministries before the start of the financial year
• C. The internal audit conducted by the Ministry of Finance
• D. The annual reports of the Reserve Bank of India

Q23. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union are laid before each House of Parliament under which Article of the Constitution?

• A. Article 148
• B. Article 149
• C. Article 150
• D. Article 151

Q24. Which one of the following best describes the legal and institutional status of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)?

• A. A statutory body created by a dedicated Act of Parliament
• B. A registered society functioning as an autonomous body under the Union Ministry of Education
• C. A constitutional body established under a specific Article of the Constitution
• D. A public sector undertaking incorporated under the Companies Act

Q25. The three Financial Committees of the Parliament of India are the Public Accounts Committee, the Estimates Committee and which one of the following?

• A. Committee on Public Undertakings
• B. Business Advisory Committee
• C. Committee on Government Assurances
• D. Rules Committee

Q26. With reference to the Supreme Court's revised protocol on mentioning and urgent listing of cases, consider the following statements: 1. Under the protocol effective from December 2025, requests for urgent listing must ordinarily be submitted in writing rather than by oral mention. 2. Oral mentioning continues to be permitted only in extraordinary circumstances, such as matters involving personal liberty. 3. Under the revised protocol, once a matter is mentioned the Bench is bound to list it for hearing the same day. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Under the protocol effective from December 2025, requests for urgent listing must ordinarily be submitted in writing rather than by oral mention.
2. Oral mentioning continues to be permitted only in extraordinary circumstances, such as matters involving personal liberty.
3. Under the revised protocol, once a matter is mentioned the Bench is bound to list it for hearing the same day.

• A. 1 and 2 only
• B. 2 and 3 only
• C. 1 and 3 only
• D. 1, 2 and 3

Q27. Which single constitutional provision is the primary basis for the appointment of the ministerial/subordinate staff (such as Personal Assistants) of a High Court, as distinct from the appointment of its judges?

• A. Article 229
• B. Article 217
• C. Article 224
• D. Article 233

Q28. The power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within the territory of a State is vested primarily in which body?

• A. The High Court of that State, under Article 227
• B. The Supreme Court of India, under Article 227
• C. The District and Sessions Court, under Article 235
• D. The State Public Service Commission, under Article 315

Q29. An appeal to the Supreme Court against the Madras High Court's order setting aside the recruitment would ordinarily be entertained under which constitutional provision?

• A. Article 136 — special leave to appeal
• B. Article 226 — writ jurisdiction of High Courts
• C. Article 227 — power of superintendence of High Courts
• D. Article 32 — writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

Q30. Under Article 229 of the Constitution, who is the primary authority for the appointment of officers and servants of a High Court?

• A. The Chief Justice of the High Court
• B. The Governor of the State
• C. The President of India
• D. The State Public Service Commission