Science & Technology MCQs for UPSC Prelims — March 2026

Q1. The 55 subjects assessed in the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2026 are grouped under how many broad faculty areas?

  • A. Five
  • B. Four
  • C. Six
  • D. Fifty-five

Q2. With reference to the governance structure of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), consider the following pairings: 1. Prime Minister — ex-officio President of the Governing Board. 2. Union Minister of Science & Technology — ex-officio Vice-President. 3. Union Minister of Education — ex-officio Vice-President. 4. Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India — ex-officio President of the Governing Board. Which of the above is/are NOT correctly matched?

  1. Prime Minister — ex-officio President of the Governing Board.
  2. Union Minister of Science & Technology — ex-officio Vice-President.
  3. Union Minister of Education — ex-officio Vice-President.
  4. Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India — ex-officio President of the Governing Board.
  • A. 1 and 2
  • B. 3 only
  • C. 1, 2 and 3
  • D. 4 only

Q3. What is the total estimated outlay of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) for the five-year period 2023-28?

  • A. Rs. 50,000 crore
  • B. Rs. 36,000 crore
  • C. Rs. 10,000 crore
  • D. Rs. 1,00,000 crore

Q4. In the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2026, which one of the following emerged as the leading Indian institution by number of subject entries in the global top 50?

  • A. IIT Delhi, with six top-50 entries
  • B. IIT (ISM) Dhanbad, with its Rank-21 in Mineral & Mining Engineering
  • C. IIM Ahmedabad, with two Rank-21 subject entries
  • D. Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bengaluru

Q5. Consider the following statements about India's quantitative performance in the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2026: 1. India recorded 27 entries in the global top 50. 2. A total of 99 Indian institutions featured in the rankings. 3. Indian institutions contributed 599 subject entries. 4. All 599 of India's subject entries improved year-on-year. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. India recorded 27 entries in the global top 50.
  2. A total of 99 Indian institutions featured in the rankings.
  3. Indian institutions contributed 599 subject entries.
  4. All 599 of India's subject entries improved year-on-year.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q6. With reference to India's performance in the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2026, consider the following statements: 1. IIM Ahmedabad was ranked 21st globally in both Business & Management Studies and Marketing. 2. IIT Delhi was the leading Indian institution, with six entries in the global top 50. 3. IIT (ISM) Dhanbad's Rank-21 in Mineral & Mining Engineering was India's only subject entry in the global top 25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. IIM Ahmedabad was ranked 21st globally in both Business & Management Studies and Marketing.
  2. IIT Delhi was the leading Indian institution, with six entries in the global top 50.
  3. IIT (ISM) Dhanbad's Rank-21 in Mineral & Mining Engineering was India's only subject entry in the global top 25.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. In the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2026, which one of the following was India's highest-ranked subject globally (Rank 21)?

  • A. Mineral & Mining Engineering at IIT (ISM) Dhanbad
  • B. Computer Science & Information Systems at IIT Delhi
  • C. Chemical Engineering at IIT Delhi
  • D. Electrical & Electronic Engineering at IIT Bombay

Q8. With reference to the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2026 and its methodology, consider the following statements: 1. The QS World University Rankings by Subject was first published in 2011, initially covering only five broad subject areas. 2. In the 2026 edition, the five core indicators are applied with identical weightings across all 55 subjects. 3. The 2026 edition evaluated more than 21,000 academic programmes across over 100 countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The QS World University Rankings by Subject was first published in 2011, initially covering only five broad subject areas.
  2. In the 2026 edition, the five core indicators are applied with identical weightings across all 55 subjects.
  3. The 2026 edition evaluated more than 21,000 academic programmes across over 100 countries.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q9. In the context of India's drive for self-reliance in chip manufacturing, the acronym 'ATMP' (as in Micron's Sanand unit) stands for which one of the following?

  • A. Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging
  • B. Advanced Transistor Manufacturing Process
  • C. Automated Testing and Mass Production
  • D. Assembly, Tooling, Mounting and Printing

Q10. The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) functions as an independent business division of which one of the following organisations?

  • A. Digital India Corporation
  • B. Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)
  • C. Software Technology Parks of India (STPI)
  • D. National Institute of Electronics and Information Technology (NIELIT)

Q11. Consider the following unit–location pairs of semiconductor projects in India: 1. Micron ATMP unit — Sanand, Gujarat 2. Tata Electronics semiconductor fab — Dholera, Gujarat 3. Tata Semiconductor Assembly & Test unit — Morigaon, Assam 4. CG Power semiconductor unit — Morigaon, Assam Which of the above is/are correctly matched?

  1. Micron ATMP unit — Sanand, Gujarat
  2. Tata Electronics semiconductor fab — Dholera, Gujarat
  3. Tata Semiconductor Assembly & Test unit — Morigaon, Assam
  4. CG Power semiconductor unit — Morigaon, Assam
  • A. 1, 2 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 3 only

Q12. Consider the following statements about India's first two operational semiconductor units: 1. Micron's Sanand unit was the first proposal approved under the India Semiconductor Mission. 2. The Kaynes Semicon plant is the second semiconductor unit in India to commence commercial production. 3. Both the Micron and Kaynes units at Sanand are front-end silicon wafer fabrication facilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Micron's Sanand unit was the first proposal approved under the India Semiconductor Mission.
  2. The Kaynes Semicon plant is the second semiconductor unit in India to commence commercial production.
  3. Both the Micron and Kaynes units at Sanand are front-end silicon wafer fabrication facilities.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q13. Each Intelligent Power Module (IPM) — the first product rolled out at the Kaynes Semicon Sanand plant — is reported to comprise how many chips?

  • A. 17
  • B. 7
  • C. 12
  • D. 27

Q14. With reference to the Kaynes Semicon plant at Sanand, consider the following: 1. Kaynes Semicon Pvt Ltd is a subsidiary of Kaynes Technology India Ltd. 2. The facility is located at Sanand in Gujarat. 3. The plant undertakes silicon wafer fabrication (front-end) of chips. 4. The plant was set up with an investment of about Rs 3,307 crore. Which of the above is/are correctly identified?

  1. Kaynes Semicon Pvt Ltd is a subsidiary of Kaynes Technology India Ltd.
  2. The facility is located at Sanand in Gujarat.
  3. The plant undertakes silicon wafer fabrication (front-end) of chips.
  4. The plant was set up with an investment of about Rs 3,307 crore.
  • A. 1, 2 and 4
  • B. 2 and 3
  • C. 1, 3 and 4
  • D. 1 and 2 only

Q15. With reference to semiconductor units approved under the India Semiconductor Mission, consider the following statements: 1. The Tata Electronics semiconductor fab at Dholera was approved with an investment of about Rs 91,000 crore. 2. The Tata Semiconductor Assembly & Test unit at Morigaon, Assam, has a planned capacity of about 48 million chips per day. 3. The Kaynes Semicon OSAT unit at Sanand was approved by the Cabinet in February 2024 along with the Tata and CG Power units. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The Tata Electronics semiconductor fab at Dholera was approved with an investment of about Rs 91,000 crore.
  2. The Tata Semiconductor Assembly & Test unit at Morigaon, Assam, has a planned capacity of about 48 million chips per day.
  3. The Kaynes Semicon OSAT unit at Sanand was approved by the Cabinet in February 2024 along with the Tata and CG Power units.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q16. Among the semiconductor units approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2024 under the India Semiconductor Mission, which one carried the largest investment outlay?

  • A. Tata Electronics semiconductor fab, Dholera
  • B. Tata Semiconductor Assembly & Test unit, Morigaon
  • C. CG Power OSAT unit, Sanand
  • D. Kaynes Semicon OSAT unit, Sanand

Q17. Under the Semicon India Programme, the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme primarily provides fiscal support for which one of the following activities?

  • A. Domestic semiconductor chip design by companies, startups and MSMEs
  • B. Construction of silicon wafer fabrication plants
  • C. Assembly, testing and packaging of fabricated chips
  • D. Manufacture of display (LCD/OLED) panels

Q18. Which one of the following was the first OSAT/ATMP semiconductor unit in India to begin commercial packaging-and-test production?

  • A. Micron ATMP unit, Sanand
  • B. Kaynes Semicon OSAT unit, Sanand
  • C. CG Power OSAT unit, Sanand
  • D. Tata Semiconductor Assembly & Test unit, Morigaon

Q19. The Kaynes Semicon OSAT facility at Sanand was set up with central fiscal support under the Semicon India Programme, which is operationalised by which one of the following ministries?

  • A. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • B. Ministry of Heavy Industries
  • C. Ministry of Science and Technology
  • D. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Q20. Green ammonia is produced by combining green hydrogen with nitrogen. Among the following, which entity is both a green ammonia producer operationalising supply under the NGHM agreements and India's largest power-generating PSU?

  • A. NTPC Renewable Energy Limited
  • B. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
  • C. Indian Oil Corporation (IOCL)
  • D. GAIL (India) Limited

Q21. The 1-km bio-bitumen blended road stretch built near the 'Kamptee 22 Km' milestone on the Nagpur–Jabalpur (NH-44) route is significant as which one of the following?

  • A. Asia's first bio-bitumen blended highway stretch
  • B. World's first end-of-life plastic-waste road
  • C. India's first steel-slag road
  • D. World's first port road

Q22. Consider the following statements about the two CSIR institutes that jointly developed bio-bitumen: 1. CSIR-CRRI, established in 1952, specialises in research on roads and runways. 2. CSIR-IIP, established in 1960, specialises in downstream hydrocarbon and petroleum-refining research. 3. Both institutes are constituent laboratories of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. CSIR-CRRI, established in 1952, specialises in research on roads and runways.
  2. CSIR-IIP, established in 1960, specialises in downstream hydrocarbon and petroleum-refining research.
  3. Both institutes are constituent laboratories of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.
  • A. 1 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q23. Which one of the following is India's premier national laboratory for road and highway research that led the development of the bio-bitumen binder?

  • A. CSIR-Indian Institute of Petroleum (CSIR-IIP), Dehradun
  • B. CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI), New Delhi
  • C. CSIR-National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (CSIR-NEERI), Nagpur
  • D. CSIR-Central Building Research Institute (CSIR-CBRI), Roorkee

Q24. With reference to the CSIR bio-bitumen production process, consider the following statements: 1. Rice straw can serve as a feedstock for the process. 2. Wheat straw can serve as a feedstock for the process. 3. The bio-binder is blended with conventional bitumen rather than used on its own. 4. The technology can completely (100%) replace conventional bitumen in road surfacing. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. Rice straw can serve as a feedstock for the process.
  2. Wheat straw can serve as a feedstock for the process.
  3. The bio-binder is blended with conventional bitumen rather than used on its own.
  4. The technology can completely (100%) replace conventional bitumen in road surfacing.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 only
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 3 and 4

Q25. In the CSIR indigenous bio-bitumen technology, lignocellulosic farm residue is converted into a renewable road binder primarily through which one of the following processes?

  • A. Anaerobic digestion
  • B. Thermochemical pyrolysis
  • C. Transesterification
  • D. Enzymatic hydrolysis

Q26. Which semiconductor facility was the first in India to commence commercial production, with the Kaynes Sanand plant becoming the second?

  • A. Micron's ATMP facility at Sanand
  • B. Tata Electronics–PSMC fab at Dholera
  • C. CG Power–Renesas unit at Sanand
  • D. Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test unit at Jagiroad, Assam

Q27. Under the Semicon India Programme, OSAT/ATMP packaging units are eligible for fiscal support of up to what share of project cost?

  • A. Up to 50 per cent
  • B. Up to 25 per cent
  • C. Up to 30 per cent
  • D. Up to 70 per cent

Q28. The approval and fiscal incentives for the Kaynes Semicon Sanand unit are operationalised through which implementing agency?

  • A. The India Semiconductor Mission, a division of the Digital India Corporation
  • B. Software Technology Parks of India (STPI)
  • C. Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC)
  • D. Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL), Mohali

Q29. The Kaynes Semicon plant at Sanand, built for wire-bond interconnect and substrate-based packages, is best classified as which type of semiconductor facility?

  • A. An OSAT (Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test) facility
  • B. A silicon wafer fabrication (fab) unit
  • C. A display fabrication unit
  • D. A compound semiconductor (silicon photonics) fab

Q30. Which Union Ministry is the nodal ministry that administers the India Semiconductor Mission and the Semicon India Programme?

  • A. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • B. Ministry of Heavy Industries
  • C. Ministry of Science and Technology
  • D. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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