Social Justice MCQs for UPSC Prelims — March 2026

Q1. The full basic customs duty exemption on 17 life-saving drugs announced in Budget 2026-27 was aimed primarily at easing the treatment burden of patients suffering from which condition?

  • A. Rare diseases
  • B. Cancer
  • C. Tuberculosis
  • D. Diabetes

Q2. The WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre, slated for upgradation under Budget 2026-27, is located in which State?

  • A. Kerala
  • B. Uttarakhand
  • C. Gujarat
  • D. Maharashtra

Q3. The National Health Policy 2017 set a target of progressively raising public health expenditure to what share of GDP by 2025?

  • A. 1.5%
  • B. 2.5%
  • C. 3%
  • D. 5%

Q4. PM-ABHIM, launched in 2021, was the renamed and expanded version of which earlier scheme?

  • A. Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY)
  • B. Pradhan Mantri Atmanirbhar Swasth Bharat Yojana (PMASBY)
  • C. National Health Mission (NHM)
  • D. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)

Q5. Which one of the following best describes the principal objective of the Pradhan Mantri Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM)?

  • A. To provide a ₹5 lakh annual health-insurance cover to poor and vulnerable families
  • B. To develop capacities of health systems and surveillance across primary, secondary and tertiary care to be pandemic-ready
  • C. To create digital health IDs (ABHA) and a unified health interface for all citizens
  • D. To provide free essential generic medicines and diagnostics at public facilities

Q6. Which one of the following correctly describes the benefit provided under the Ayushman Vay Vandana Card?

  • A. A monthly old-age pension paid to citizens aged 70 and above below the poverty line
  • B. Free health cover of ₹5 lakh per year to all citizens aged 70 and above, irrespective of socio-economic status
  • C. A life-insurance cover payable to the nominee on the death of a citizen aged 70 and above
  • D. Free outpatient (OPD) consultation at Ayushman Arogya Mandirs for citizens aged 70 and above

Q7. The Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), including the Ayushman Vay Vandana Card for citizens aged 70 and above, is operationalised under which Union Ministry?

  • A. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • C. Ministry of Labour and Employment
  • D. Ministry of Women and Child Development

Q8. The December 2012 gang-rape case that triggered the largest nationwide anti-rape protests and subsequent criminal-law reform occurred in which one of the following cities?

  • A. Mumbai
  • B. Delhi
  • C. Kolkata
  • D. Hyderabad

Q9. With reference to Yogita Bhayana and the organisation PARI, consider the following statements: 1. She is the founder of People Against Rape in India (PARI). 2. She led a public initiative seeking a dedicated annual parliamentary session on women's issues. 3. Her advocacy is credited with building pressure behind the reform allowing 16-18 year olds to be tried as adults for heinous offences. 4. She served as the presiding judge in the Nirbhaya criminal trial. Which of the statements given above are correctly identified?

  1. She is the founder of People Against Rape in India (PARI).
  2. She led a public initiative seeking a dedicated annual parliamentary session on women's issues.
  3. Her advocacy is credited with building pressure behind the reform allowing 16-18 year olds to be tried as adults for heinous offences.
  4. She served as the presiding judge in the Nirbhaya criminal trial.
  • A. 1 and 2 only
  • B. 1, 2 and 3
  • C. 2, 3 and 4
  • D. 1, 3 and 4

Q10. People Against Rape in India (PARI), founded by activist Yogita Bhayana, was formed in the immediate aftermath of which one of the following cases?

  • A. The 2012 Delhi (Nirbhaya) gang-rape case
  • B. The 2018 Kathua case
  • C. The 2019 Hyderabad veterinarian case
  • D. The 2017 Unnao case

Q11. As per the Health Dynamics of India (Infrastructure and Human Resources) 2022-23, what is the number of registered AYUSH practitioners in the country?

  • A. 7,51,768
  • B. 13,88,185
  • C. 5,51,768
  • D. 8,51,768

Q12. In computing India's doctor-population ratio of 1:811, registered practitioners of which one of the following are counted alongside allopathic doctors?

  • A. AYUSH systems of medicine
  • B. Registered nurses and midwives
  • C. Community Health Officers
  • D. Registered dental surgeons

Q13. With reference to the growth of medical education capacity from the pre-2014 baseline, which of the following are correctly stated?

  1. Medical colleges increased from 387 to 818.
  2. MBBS (UG) seats increased from 51,348 to 1,28,875.
  3. PG seats increased from 31,185 to 82,059.
  4. The number of medical colleges in the pre-2014 baseline was 704.
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 4 only
  • C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q14. The Centrally Sponsored Scheme for establishing new medical colleges by upgrading existing district/referral hospitals is implemented by which one of the following Union Ministries?

  • A. Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
  • B. Ministry of Education
  • C. Ministry of AYUSH
  • D. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Q15. Under which provision of the National Medical Commission Act, 2019 did the National Medical Commission replace the erstwhile Medical Council of India?

  • A. Section 60(1)
  • B. Section 3(1)
  • C. Section 15
  • D. Section 33

Q16. Which of the following are correctly identified as autonomous boards constituted under the National Medical Commission Act, 2019?

  1. Under-Graduate Medical Education Board
  2. Medical Assessment and Rating Board
  3. Ethics and Medical Registration Board
  4. Board of Governors in supersession of the Medical Council of India
  • A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  • B. 2 and 4 only
  • C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q17. The 2025 approval of Phase-III of the Centrally Sponsored Scheme adding 5,023 MBBS and 5,000 PG seats in government institutions was granted by which one of the following?

  • A. Union Cabinet
  • B. National Medical Commission
  • C. Empowered Committee of the MoHFW
  • D. NITI Aayog

Q18. India's estimated doctor-population ratio of 1:811 is drawn from which one of the following Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare publications?

  • A. Health Dynamics of India (Infrastructure and Human Resources) 2022-23
  • B. National Health Profile 2022
  • C. National Family Health Survey-5
  • D. Rural Health Statistics 2021-22

Q19. With reference to the provisions of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, consider the following statements: 1. It removes the provision permitting self-identification of gender contained in the 2019 Act. 2. It makes the certificate of identity issuable by the District Magistrate only after the recommendation of a designated medical board. 3. It establishes, for the very first time, the National Council for Transgender Persons. 4. It introduces enhanced penalties, including imprisonment that may extend to life, for forcing a person into a transgender identity. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. It removes the provision permitting self-identification of gender contained in the 2019 Act.
  2. It makes the certificate of identity issuable by the District Magistrate only after the recommendation of a designated medical board.
  3. It establishes, for the very first time, the National Council for Transgender Persons.
  4. It introduces enhanced penalties, including imprisonment that may extend to life, for forcing a person into a transgender identity.
  • A. 3 only
  • B. 1 and 2
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 3 and 4

Q20. The right to self-identification of gender, which the 2026 Amendment Bill removes, was first affirmed for transgender persons by the Supreme Court of India in which case?

  • A. National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) v. Union of India (2014)
  • B. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018)
  • C. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
  • D. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Aadhaar) v. Union of India (2019)

Q21. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019, as amended by the 2026 Amendment Bill, is administered as the nodal/implementing authority by which Union Ministry?

  • A. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  • B. Ministry of Women and Child Development
  • C. Ministry of Home Affairs
  • D. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Q22. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 was first introduced in which House of Parliament?

  • A. Lok Sabha
  • B. Rajya Sabha
  • C. A joint sitting of both Houses
  • D. It was first referred to a Department-related Standing Committee before either House

Q23. With reference to the definition of transgender persons adopted by the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026, consider the following socio-cultural/identity categories: 1. Kinner 2. Aravani 3. Genderqueer 4. Eunuch Which of the above is/are correctly identified as categories expressly recognised within the Bill's definition?

  1. Kinner
  2. Aravani
  3. Genderqueer
  4. Eunuch
  • A. 1, 2 and 4
  • B. 2 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 3
  • D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q24. Detailed data on all castes will be collected in Census 2027 for the first time since the Census of 1931 — that is, after a gap of approximately how many years?

  • A. About 76 years
  • B. About 86 years
  • C. About 96 years
  • D. About 106 years

Q25. Which division, functioning under the Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS), is the nodal body for implementing the National TB Elimination Programme?

  • A. Central TB Division
  • B. National Centre for Disease Control
  • C. National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme
  • D. National AIDS Control Organisation

Q26. With reference to India's tuberculosis progress metrics cited around the World TB Day 2026 event, consider the following statements. Which of the above is/are NOT correct?

  1. India recorded about a 21% decline in TB incidence over the past decade.
  2. India recorded about a 25% decline in TB mortality over the past decade.
  3. TB treatment coverage rose to over 92% in 2024 from 53% in 2015.
  4. India's TB incidence rose from 187 to 237 per lakh population between 2015 and 2024.
  • A. 1 and 3
  • B. 2 and 4
  • C. 4 only
  • D. 3 and 4

Q27. With reference to the initiatives associated with World TB Day 2026, consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. The 2026 event marked the launch of the second intensified 100-day campaign, whereas the first such campaign was launched in December 2024.
  2. The TB Mukt Bharat App was launched solely for donors to register themselves as Ni-kshay Mitras.
  3. The TB Mukt Urban Ward Initiative was among the initiatives launched at the 2026 event.
  • A. 1 and 3 only
  • B. 1 and 2 only
  • C. 2 and 3 only
  • D. 1, 2 and 3

Q28. At the World TB Day 2026 national event, how many distinct initiatives did the Union Health Minister flag off, taken together?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five

Q29. The second intensified 100-day TB Mukt Bharat campaign, launched in March 2026, was inaugurated at which venue?

  • A. Gautam Buddha University, Greater Noida (Uttar Pradesh)
  • B. Panchkula (Haryana)
  • C. Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
  • D. Gandhinagar (Gujarat)

Q30. Among the initiatives flagged off at the World TB Day 2026 event, what is the 'TB Mukt Bharat App'?

  • A. A mobile application for ward-level monitoring of the TB elimination campaign
  • B. A donor-facing portal exclusively for registering as a Ni-kshay Mitra
  • C. A molecular diagnostic platform replacing CBNAAT testing
  • D. A direct benefit transfer gateway for disbursing nutrition support to patients